AKULA PRAVEEN KUMAR

Friday, August 12, 2011

RAKSHBANDHAN WISHES TO ALL

R . A . K . H . I

R : Relationship
A : Affection
K : Knitting together
H : Him (Brother) & Her (Sister)
I : Interminably

Wednesday, August 10, 2011

Prepared / Compelled by Akula. Praveen Kumar, Medak H.O (AP)

Mobile no. :9849636361, 8019549939

FOR MORE QUESTIONS & MATERIAL PLEASE MAIL TO ME

Suggested Questions from Postal Manual Volume- VI, PO Guide, Postal Manual Volume-V

1. Money order paid returns are prepared: -

(a) Daily (b) Weekly (c) Fortnightly (d) Monthly

Ans: - (c) (Rule-79 Volume-VI, Part-III)

2. Which letter is to be prefixed to a TMO paid in the Journal of MO s paid: -

(a) R (b) S (c) T (d) None of the above.

Ans: - (c) (Rule-44 Volume-VI, Part-III)

3. The currency of an Indian Postal Order is normally: -

(a) 6 months from the last day of the month in which it was sold,
(b) 2 years from the last day of the month in which it was sold,
(c) 5 years from the last day of the month in which it was sold,
(d) 10 years from the last day of the month in which it was sold,

Ans: - (b) (Rule-195 Volume-VI, Part-III)

4. The amount of commission to be realized at the time of sale of an IPO of denomination of Rs.100/ - is:-
(a) Rs. 10/- (b) Rs. 5/- (c) Re.1/- (d) Rs.2/-

Ans: - (a) (Clause-244 PO Guide Part-I)

5. The 1st class mails handed by the Post Office are of: -

(a) 3 types-Letters, Letter Cards & Post Cards,
(b) 4 types--- Letters, Letter Cards, Book Packets & Post Cards,
(c) 5 types---- Letters, Letter Cards, Book Packets, Parcels & Post Cards,
(d) None of the above.

Ans: - (a) (Clause-98 PO Guide Part-I)

6. The maximum admissible weight of a Book Packet posted in Post is: -
(a) 2 KG (b) 3 KG (c) 4 KG (d) 5 KG.

Ans: - (d) (Clause-98 PO Guide Part-I)
7. A Franking Machine has: -
(a) 1 meter (b) 2 meters (c) 3 meters (d) 4 meters
Ans: - (b) (Clause-11 PO Guide Part-I)

8. In case of each Business Reply article, the Post Office will charge an additional postage of:
(a) Re. 1/- (b) Rs. 2/- (c) Rs. 3/- (d) Rs.4/-
Ans: - (a) (Clause-11 PO Guide Part-I)

9. The Postal Index Number (PIN) must contain: -

(a) 5 digits (b) 4 digits (c) 7 digits (d) 6 digits
Ans: - (d) (Rule-107 Postal Manual Volume-V)

10. The postal articles refused by the addressee are to be: -

(a) Returned to sender or to RLO
(b) To be kept in deposit in the office of delivery
(c) To be handed over to the Overseer for delivery
(d) None of the above.
Ans: - (a)

11. Minimum amount taxed on unpaid / insufficiently paid articles posted in post is: -

(a) Re. 1/- (b) Rs. 2/- (c) Rs.5/- (d) Rs. 6/-
Ans: - (a)

12. Addressee's Instructions are of: -
(a) 1 type---permanent instruction
(b) 2 types-temporary instruction & permanent instruction
(c) 3 types--- temporary instruction, semi- permanent instruction & permanent instruction
(d) None of the above.
Ans: - (b) (Rule-133 Postal Manual Vol.-VI Part-I)

13. Poste Restante are to be kept in deposit for: -

(a) 7 days from the date of receipt,
(b) 15 days from the date of receipt,
(c) 1 month days from the date of receipt,
(d) 2 months days from the date of receipt
Ans: - (c)

14. Undelivered Acknowledgements cards are to be destroyed after: -

(a) 15 days (b) 1 month (c) 4 months (d) None of the above.
Ans: - (c)

15. Redirection Fee for Parcel is: -
(a) 50% of the ordinary postage,
(b) Nil,
(c) 25% of the ordinary postage,
(d) None of the above.
Ans: - (a) (Clause 67-71 PO Guide Part-I)
16. Any postal article can be redirected: -
(a) By the office of posting
(b) By both the office of posting & the office of destination
(c) By any intermediate office/section handling the article
(d) Only by the office of destination.
Ans: - (d) (Clause 67-71 PO Guide Part-I)

17. Ordinary postal article received in damaged condition in the o/o delivery: -
(a) Should be returned to the o/o posting
(b) Should be sent out for delivery at once
(c) Should be forwarded to the o/o the Divisional Superintendent
(d) Should be enclosed in a protecting cover with a remark made on the top & the sent out for
delivery.
Ans: - (d) (Rule-145 Postal Manual Volume-V)

18. An Inland Parcel must be Registered if its weight exceeds: -
(a) 1 KG (b) 2 KG (c) 4 KG (d) None of the above.
Ans: - (c) (Clause 164 PO Guide Part-I)

19. Currency Notes, Coins, precious stones can be sent by: -
(a) Insured Post (b) Registered Post (c) Ordinary Post
(d) Under Certificate of Posting.
Ans: - (a) (Clause 184 PO Guide Part-I)

20. The maximum limit of Insurance is: -
(a) Rs. 10, 000/-, (b) Rs. 50, 000/- (c) Rs. 1 lakh (d) None of the above.
Ans: - (c) (Clause 184 PO Guide Part-I)

21. An Insured Bundle is prepared when there is: -
(a) More than 2 insured articles addressed to the same office of delivery
(b) More than 3 insured articles addressed to the same office of delivery
(c) More than 5 insured articles addressed to the same office of delivery
(d) More than 1 insured article addressed to the same office of delivery.
Ans: - (d) (Rule-89A Postal Manual Volume-V)

22. Delivery Slip in respect of Registered Articles to be delivered at the Window of the Post Office is prepared in: -
(a) Single Copy (b) Duplicate, (c)Triplicate (d) Not at all prepared.
Ans: - (a) (Rule-164 Postal Manual Volume-VI Part-I)

23. The addressee of Registered Article to which an Acknowledgement Card is attached must sign: -
(a) Delivery Slip only (b) Acknowledgement Card only
(c) Both the Delivery Slip & the Acknowledgement Card (d) None of the above.
Ans: - (c) (Rule-183 Postal Manual Vol.-VI Part-I)

24. The addressee of a Value Payable (V.P.) article may request the Post Office to detain his article in the Post Office by payment of warehousing charges for a period of: -

(a) 7 days (b) 5 days (c) 14 days (d) 1 month.
Ans: - (a) (Rule-222 Postal Manual Vol.-VI Part-I)

25. The maximum weight/aggregate weight of Parcel (s) (except VP Parcels and Parcels marked Poste Restante) that can be delivered at the premises of an addressee is: -

(a) 5 KG (b) 10 KG (c) 15 KG (d) 20 KG
Ans: - (b) (Clause 41 PO Guide Part-I)

26. The amount of commission charged on a Service Money Order amounting to Rs. 1000/- is

(a) Rs. 25/- (b) Rs.50/- (c) Rs. 100/- (d) NIL
Ans: - (d)

27. A Family Allotment Money Order is remitted by the: -

(a) Defence authorities (b) Telecom authorities
(c) General members of public (d) None of the above.
Ans: - (a)

28. The maximum limit of a single ordinary Money Order is: -
(a) Rs. 2000/- (b) Rs. 5000/- (c) Rs. 10,000/- (d) Rs. 1 lakh.
Ans: - (b) (Clause 217 PO Guide Part-I)

29. A Money Order (MO-8) form is divided into: -
(a) 2 parts (b)3 parts (c) 4 parts (d) 5 parts
Ans: - (c) (Rule-8 Postal Manual Vol. VI Part-II)

30. A Money Order paid to an illiterate payee is paid: -

(a) After obtaining the thumb impression of the payee and getting it attested by a reliable witness other than the paying official
(b) After obtaining the thumb impression of the payee
(c) To a literate family member of the payee
(d) After obtaining the thumb impression of the payee and getting it attested by the paying official.
Ans: - (a) (Rule-38 Postal Manual Volume VI Part-II)

31. The name of the payee of a Money Order can be altered: -
(a) On payment of a second commission in cash,
(b) On payment of a second commission in the shape of Postage Stamps
(c) Free of cost
(d) None of the above.
Ans: - (b) (Clause 227 PO Guide Part-I)

32. The Broken Amount of an Indian Postal Order can be made up by affixing: -
(a) 3 unused Postage stamps (b) 4 unused Postage stamps
(c) 5 unused Postage stamps (d) Not permissible.
Ans: - (a) (Clause-245 PO Guide Part-I)

33. Maximum amount of compensation admissible in case of loss/destruction of a Registered article is: -
(a) Amount of actual loss (b) Rs. 50/- (c) Rs. 100/-
(d) As claimed either by the addressee or by the sender.
Ans: - (c) (Clause-170 PO Guide Part-I)

34. Advance Remittance (or Minus Entry) is: -
(a) Cash is received prior to the receipt of the SO/ BO daily account
(b) Cash is received after to the receipt of the SO/ BO daily account
(c) Cash is received in short than as mentioned in the SO/BO daily account
(d) None of the above.
Ans: - (a) (Rule-74, Postal Manual Vol.-VI, Part-III)

35. The word "in transit" means: -
(a) The value of cash/stamps which has been remitted and already accounted at the Cash Office
(b) The value of cash/stamps which has been remitted but not yet accounted at the Cash Office
(c) The value of cash/stamps which has not been remitted to the Cash Office on the same day
(d) None of the above.
Ans: - (b) (Rule-74, Postal Manual Vol.-VI, Part-III)

36. Amount due from a Brach Post Office is: -
(a) Total of closing balance of BO + total amount of transit
(b) Total of closing balance of BO
(c) Authorized cash balance of BO
(d) Total amount of transit of the BO.
Ans: - (a) (Rule-74, Postal Manual Vol.-VI, Part-III)

37. The Sub Office (S.O.) daily account is prepared by the: -
(a) Treasurer of the S.O. (b) Sub-Account PA of the S.O.
(c) Sub-Postmaster of the S.O. (d) None of the above.
Ans: - (c) (Rule-29, Postal Manual Vol.-VI, Part-III)

38. S.O. slip is prepared and sent: -
(a) From H.O. to S.O. (b) From S.O. to B.O. (c) From S.O. to H.O. (d) From S.O. to the o/o the Divisional Superintendent.
Ans: - (a) (Rule-18, Postal Manual Vol.-VI, Part-III)

39. The Treasurer's Cash Book is divided into: -
(a) Only 1 part--- "receipts" (b) Only 1 part--- "payments"
(c) 2 parts---"receipts" & "payments" (d) 3 parts---"receipts", "payments" & "cash/
stamps in transit".
Ans: - (c) (Rule-86, Postal Manual Vol.-VI, Part-III)

40. The maximum weight of an article sent by "Express Parcel Post" is: -
(a) 10 KG (b) 25 KG (c) 30 KG (d) 35 KG.
Ans: - (d)

41. Registered articles addressed to Shri Ramesh, 27, Highway Road, Chegunta will be delivered
(a) only to Shri Ramesh his residential address
(b) to any one residing at the address given above
(c) to a messenger from Shri Ramesh without any authorization letter
(d) none of a, b, c.
Ans. (a) (Clause 36-PO Guide Part-I)

42. If the payee refuses to take Money order, it should be returned for repayment to the remitter
(a) on the same day (b) after keeping it in deposit for 3 days
(c) after keeping it in deposit for 7 days (d) after keeping it in deposit for 15 days
Ans. (c) (Rule 62 of Postal Man, Vol. VI Pt.II)

43. Registered letter addressed to Shri Srinivas could not be delivered as the addressee has left India. In such a case, who will make the remarks on the article for the cause of non- delivery?

(a) Registration Delivery PA (b) APM (Delivery)
(c) Postmaster (d) Postman of that beat
Ans. (d) (Rule 183(2) of Postal Man. Vol.VI Pt.I)

44. Machine franked articles received from the local bank for dispatch indicating the place of origin & date of posting will be date stamped on
(a) Address side (b) back side (c) near the franked impression
(d) need not be date stamped

45. Money order payable to a person without fingers & suffering from leprosy and living in asylum shall be paid
(a) to the payee only after getting witness from literate persons.
(b) to any of the family members of the payee duly witnessed by a literate person.
(c) to a messenger authorized by the family members
(d) to the Head of Asylum on his signing the MO on behalf of such a person.
Ans. (b) (Rule 35 of Postal Man. Vol.VI Pt.II)
46. Franked articles bearing previous day date stamp impressions presented for despatch

(a) can be accepted. (b) can be rejected.
(c) can be accepted after getting date stamp impression of the day of dispatch.
(d) none of a, b, c.
Ans. (c) (Clause11 (10) (viii) (b) of PO Guide Part-I)

47. Who is incharge of Sorting Mail Office?
(a) Mail Guard (b) Mailman (c) Head Record Office (d) Head Sorter
Ans. (d) (Rule 15 of Postal man. Vol.V)

48. Forward bag contains
a) Only closed bags b) bags to be opened by section
c) Articles containing fully prepaid articles d) none of a, b, c.
Ans. (a) Rule 9 of Postal Man. Vol.V)

Monday, August 8, 2011

ANSWERS FOR EVIDENCE ACT MCQ QUESTIONS 1-100 post dated 4th Aug 2011

1- b , 2- b, 3- c, 4-c, 5-a, 6-d, 7-c, 8-b, 9-b, 10-c, 11-c, 12-b, 13-c, 14-d, 15-b, 16-b, 17-c, 18-b, 19-a, 20-a, 21-b, 22-d, 23-b, 24-c, 25-b, 26-c, 27-d, 28-c, 29-b, 30-c, 31-a, 32-c, 33-c, 34-d, 35-d, 36-c, 37-b, 38-d, 39-c, 40-c, 41-b, 42-a, 43-b, 44-a, 45-a, 46-c, 47-c, 48-a, 49-c, 50-b, 51-d, 52-d, 53-c, 54-d, 55-c, 56-c,57-b, 58-a, 59-d,60-b, 61-c, 62-d, 63-c, 64-b,65-c, 66-d, 67-a, 68-c, 69-b, 70-b, 71-a, 72-c, 73-a, 74-a, 75-b, 76-d, 77-a, 78-c, 79-c, 80-a, 81-d, 82-b, 83-c, 84-a, 85-a,86-c, 87-b, 88-c,89-d, 90-b, 91-c,92-b, 93-c, 94-d, 95-a, 96-b, 97-b,98-c, 99-b, 100-a

Friday, August 5, 2011

SUPPORT FOR SEPARATE TELANGANA STATE

1. On what grounds Indian Movement started ?Dint British government develop India ? Dint they introduce railways and established trade and commerce , dint they unite all princely states for developing a unified nation of British Raj ? Then why did Indians oppose , where our Leaders , So called Freedom fighters Were Poltically Unemployed that they raised question of Freedom or a Republic independant nation ?? PLUNDER AND SELF RESPECT was the reasons which gave birth to Aspirations of freedom . So is Telangana , If a MLA or MP is won , its will and wish of people , TRS TDP INC TVS TPF , whatever the agendas are , They are PEOPLES REPRESENTATIVES not Unemployed politicians . If they are political Unemployed so were freedom fighters !!!!!

2. Did Students Take part in Indian Freedom struggle ?Leaders those days travelling villages to inspire young lads to be part of the agitations to form guerrela groups and attack the govt offices and trouble the British govt , Students were motivated and they were enlightened about the benefits of independent India and the atrocities faced by the British, They were trained to attack the govt , Literally kill the officials , We Telangana students have burned ourselves but haven't touched any person till date . Are political parties using students as bait ?? did INC use our grandfathers as bait for freedom ???

3. Who Developed whom ? Who's the lord of the land ?British raj developed India , No doubts about it !!! For instance even if Andhra govt has developed Hyderabad and Telangana ? Who benefited ? Britishers developed railways , education , medical and infrastructure but on whos money ?They Plundered our resources ... exploited to the optimum level . So are these , Used our money , Used our coal , Used our water , Used " Us " to win in elections and Build Tycoon Empires which can last for generations as did East India Company ! Now whos the lord of the land ? British said i developed India so i wanna keep it myself ? did it happen ... so is with andhrites , you have done nothing , if u think u have done something and you need to be paid for that , Be our guest enjoy safe haven in Hyderabad .You are always a " TENANT "

4. Do you affirm that only Gandhi Ji got us Independence ?Can you ignore Bhagat singh , Chandhrashekar Azad , Subash Chandhrabose ?? we are sons of Father of nations , but dont forget we are brothers of azad ,bhagat & bose also .

One Demand one in Union. Prepare yourself for the Sakala Jana Samme. Be Ready lets make a it a success. Let our Voice be louder than any fake Samikyandhra movement. Dont Give up but Gear up.

Notes on Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (CrPc)

82. Proclamation for person absconding.

(1) If Any court has reason to believe (whether after taking evidence or not) that any person against whom a warrant has been issued by it has absconded or is concealing himself so that such warrant cannot be executed, such court may publish a written proclamation requiring him to appear at a specific place and at a specified time not less than thirty days from the date of publishing such proclamation.

(2) The proclamation shall be published as follows-

(i)(a) It shall be publicly read in some conspicuous place of the town or village in which such person ordinarily resides;

(b) It shall be affixed to some conspicuous part of the house or home-stead in which such person ordinarily resides or to some conspicuous place of such town or village;

(c) A copy thereof shall be affixed to some conspicuous part of the Court house,

(ii) The court may also, if it thinks fit, direct a copy of the proclamation to be published in a daily newspaper circulating in the place in which such person ordinarily resides.

(3) A statement in writing by the court issuing the proclamation to the effect that the proclamation was duly published on a specified day, in the manner specified in Clause (i) of sub-section (2), shall be conclusive evidence that the requirements of this section have been complied with, and that the proclamation was published on such day.
Proclamation and attachment (Sections 82- 86 of Code of Criminal Procedure,1973)

82. Proclamation for person absconding.

(1) If any Court has reason to believe (whether after taking evidence or not) that any person against whom a warrant has been issued by it has absconded or is concealing himself so that such warrant cannot be executed, such Court may publish a written proclamation requiring him to appear at a specified place and at a specified time not less than thirty days from the date of publishing such proclamation.

(2) The proclamation shall be published as follows:

(i) (a) it shall be publicly read in some conspicuous place of the town or village in which such person ordinarily resides;

(b) it shall be affixed to some conspicuous part of the house or homestead in which such person ordinarily resides or to some conspicuous place of such town or village;
(c) a copy thereof shall be affixed to some conspicuous part of the Court-house; (ii) the Court may also, if it thinks fit, direct a copy of the proclamation to be published in a daily newspaper circulating in the place in which such person ordinarily resides. (3) A statement in writing by the Court issuing the proclamation to the effect that the proclamation was duly published on a specified day, in the manner specified in clause (i) of sub-section (2), shall be conclusive evidence that the requirements of this section have been complied with, and that the proclamation was published on such day. 83. Attachment of Property of person absconding.

83. Attachment of Property of person absconding.

(1) The Court issuing a proclamation under section 82 may, for reasons to be recorded in writing, at any time after the issue of the proclamation, order the attachment of any property, movable or immovable, or both, belonging to the proclaimed person: Provided that where at the time of the issue of the proclamation the Court is satisfied, by affidavit or otherwise, that the person in relation to whom the proclamation is to, be issued,- (a) is about to dispose of the whole or any part of his property, or(b) is about to remove, the whole or any part of his property from the local jurisdiction of the Court, it may order the attachment simultaneously with the issue of the proclamation. (2) Such order shall authorise the attachment of any property belonging to such person within the district in which it is made; and it shall authorise the attachment of any property belonging to such person without such district when endorsed by the District Magistrate within whose district such property is situate.

(3)If the property ordered to be attached is a debt or other movable property, the attachment under this section shall be made-

(a) by seizure ; or
(b) by the appointment of a receiver ; or
(c) by an order in writing prohibiting the delivery of such property to the proclaimed person or to any one on his behalf
(d) by all or any two of such methods, as the Court thinks fit.

(4) If the property ordered to be attached is immovable, the attachment under this section shall, in the case of land paying revenue to the State Government, be made through the Collector of the district which the land is situate, and in all other cases-
(a) by taking possession ; or
(b) by the appointment of a receiver ; or
(c) by an order in writing prohibiting the payment of rent on delivery of property to the proclaimed person or to any one on his behalf ; or
(d) by all or any two of such methods, as the Court thinks fit.
(5) If the property ordered to be attached consists of live- stock or is of a perishable nature, the Court may, if it thinks it expedient, order immediate sale thereof, and in such case the proceeds of the sale shall abide the order of the Court.

(6) The powers, duties and liabilities of a receiver appointed under this section shall be the same as those of a receiver appointed under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (5 of 1908). 84. Claims and objections to attachment.

84. Claims and objections to attachment.

(1) If any claim is preferred to, or objection made to the attachment of, any property attached under section 83, within six months from the date of such attachment, by any person other than the proclaimed person, on the ground that the claimant or objector has an interest in such property, and that such interest is not liable to attachment under section 83, the claim or objection shall be inquired into, and may be allowed or disallowed in whole or in part: Provided that any claim preferred or objection made within the period allowed by this-sub-section may, in the event of the death of the claimant or objector, be continued by his legal representative. 845 (2) Claims or objections under sub-section (1) may be preferred or made in the Court by which the order of attachment is issued, or, if the claim or objection is in respect of property attached under an order endorsed under sub-section (2) of section 83, in the Court of the Chief Judicial Magistrate of the district in which the attachment is made.
(3) Every such claim or objection shall be inquired into by the Court in which it is preferred or made: Provided that, if it is preferred or made in the Court of a Chief Judicial Magistrate, he may make it over for disposal to any Magistrate subordinate to him.
(4) Any person whose claim or objection has been disallowed in whole or in part by an order under sub-section (1) may, within a period of one year from the date of such order, institute a suit to establish the right which he claims in respect of the property in dispute ; but subject to the result of such suit, if any, the order shall be conclusive.

85. Release, sale and restoration of attached property.

(1) If the proclaimed person appears within the time specified in the proclamation, the Court shall make an order releasing the property from the attachment. (2) If the proclaimed person does not appear within the time specified in the proclamation, the property under the attachment shall be at the disposal of the State Government; but it shall not be sold until the expiration of six months from the date of the attachment and until any claim preferred or objection made under section 84 has been disposed under that section, unless it is subject to speedy and natural decay, or the Court considers that the sale would be for the benefit of the owner ; in either of which cases the Court may cause it to be sold whenever it thinks fit. (3) If, within two years from the date of the attachment, any person whose property is or has been at the disposal of the State Government, under sub-section (2), appears voluntarily or is apprehended and brought before the Court by whose order the property was attached, or the Court to which such Court is subordinate, and proves to the satisfaction of such Court that he did not abscond or conceal himself for the purpose of avoiding execution of the warrant, and that he had not such notice of the proclamation as to enable him to attend within the time specified therein, such property, or, if the same has been sold, the net proceeds of the sale, or, if part only thereof has been sold, the net proceeds of the sale and the residue of the property, shall, after satisfying therefrom all costs incurred in consequence of the attachment, be delivered to him.

86. Appeal from order rejecting application for restoration of attached property.

Any person referred to in sub-section (3) of section 85, who is aggrieved by any refusal to deliver property or the proceeds of the sale thereof may appeal to the Court to which appeals ordinarily lie from the sentences of the first-mentioned Court.

Thursday, August 4, 2011

MC QUESTIONS ON EVIDENCE ACT

1. Indian Evidence Act was drafted by

(a) Lord Macaulay

(b) Sir James F. Stephen

(d) Sir Henry Summer Maine.

2. The law of evidence consists of

(a) ordinary rules of reasoning

(b) legal rules of evidence

(d) all the above.

3. Relevancy and admissibility under the

Indian Evidence Act are

(a) synonymous

(b) co-extensive

(d) synonymous & co-extensive both.

4. 'Self-regarding' statements

(a) can be self-serving statements

(b) can be self-harming statements

(d) none of the above.

5. What is correct as regards the admissibility of self-regarding statements

(a) self-harming statement is admissible but a self-serving statement is not generally admissible

(b) self-serving statement is admissible but a self-harming statement is not generally admissible

(d) self-serving and self-harming statements both are generally inadmissible.

6. Under the law of evidence, as a general rule

(a) opinion on a matter of fact is relevant but not on a matter of law

(b) opinion on a matter of law is relevant but not on a matter of fact

(d) opinion whether on a matter of fact or law, is irrelevant.

7. Indian Evidence Act applies to

(a) proceedings before tribunals

(b) proceedings before the arbitrator

(d) all the above.

8. Law of evidence is

(a) lex tallienis

(b) lex fori

(d) lex situs.

9. Law of evidence is

(a) a substantive law

(b) an adjective law

(d) neither (a) nor (b).

10. Facts can be

(a) physical facts

(b) psychological facts

(d) only physical facts & not psychological facts.

11. Under the Evidence Act, fact means

(a) factum probandum

(b) factum probans

(d) none of the above.

12. Fact in issue means

(a) fact, existence or non-existence of which is admitted by the parties

(b) fact, existence or non-existence of which is disputed by the parties

(d) all the above.

13. Evidence under the Indian Evidence Act means & includes

(a) ocular evidence

(b) documentary evidence

(d) ocular evidence based on documents only.

14. Propositions under Evidence Act are

I. Affidavit is an evidence.

II. Everything produced before the court for inspection is evidence.

III. Anything of which judicial notice can be taken is evidence.

IV. Written statement of an accused is evidence. Which of the following is true in respect of the aforesaid propositions

(a) I, II, III & IV all are correct

(b) I, II & III are correct but IV is incorrect

(d) I, II & IV are incorrect but III is correct

(e) I & II are correct but III & IV are incorrect

(f) I is incorrect but II, III & IV are correct.

15. Proof of a fact depends on

(a) accuracy of the statement and not upon the probability of its existence

(b) not upon the accuracy of the statement but upon the probability of its existence

(d) rigid mathematical demonstration.

16. Standard of proof in

(a) civil and criminal cases is the same

(b) criminal cases is much more higher than in civil cases

(d) either (a) or (c) are correct

17. Presumptions under the law of evidence are

(a) presumption of facts

(b) presumptions of law

(d) only (b) & not (a).

18. Propositions under Evidence Act are

I. Presumptions of facts are always rebuttable

II. Presumption of facts can be either rebuttable or irrebuttable

III. Presumption of law are always irrebuttable

IV. Presumption of law can be either rebuttable or irrebuttable.

Which is true of the aforesaid propositions

(a) I & III are correct but II & IV are incorrect

(b) I & IV are correct but II & III are incorrect

(d) II & IV are correct but I & III are incorrect.

19. Under the law of evidence, the relevant fact

(a) must be legally relevant

(b) must be logically relevant

(d) must be legally & logically relevant and admissible.

20. Relevancy is

(a) question of law and can be raised at any time

(b) question of law but can be raised at the first opportunity

(c) question of law which can be waived

(d) question of procedure which can be waived.

21. Question of mode of proof is

(a) a question of law which can be raised at any time

(b) a question of procedure but has to be raised at the first opportunity and stands waived if not raised at the first opportunity

(d) a mixed question of law & fact.

22. Which of the following documents are not admissible in evidence

(a) documents improperly procured

(b) documents procured by illegal means

(d) neither (a) nor (b).

23. The facts which form part of the same transaction are relevant

(a) under section 5 of Evidence Act

(b) under section 6 of Evidence Act

(d) under section 8 of Evidence Act.

24. A fact forming part of the same transaction is relevant under section 6 of Evidence Act

(a) if it is in issue and have occurred at the same time & place

(b) if it is in issue and may have occurred at different times & places

(d) though not in issue, must have occurred at the same time & place.

25. Several classes of facts, which are connected with the transaction(s) in a particular mode, are relevant

(a) under section 6 of Evidence Act

(b) under section 7 of Evidence Act

(d) under section 9 of Evidence Act.

26. Motives of preparation and conduct are I relevant

(a) under section 6 of Evidence Act

(b) under section 7 of Evidence Act

(d) under section 9 of Evidence Act.

27. Under section 8 of Evidence Act

(a) motive is relevant

(b) preparation is relevant

(d) all the above.

28. For conduct to be relevant under section 8 of Evidence Act, it

(a) must be previous

(b) must be subsequent

(d) only subsequent & not previous.

29. Facts which are necessary to explain or introduce relevant facts of place, name, date, relationship & identity of parties are relevant

(a) under section 8 of Evidence Act

(b) under section 9 of Evidence Act

(d) under section 11 of Evidence Act.

30. Under section 9 of Evidence Act

(a) the identification parades of suspects are relevant

(b) the identification parades of chattels are relevant

(d) only (a) & not (b) is relevant.

31. Identification of a suspect by photo is

(a) admissible in evidence

(b) not admissible in evidence

(d) section 8 of Evidence Act excludes identification by photo.

32. Things said or done by a conspirator in reference to the common design is relevant

(a) under section 12 of Evidence Act

(b) under section 6 of Evidence Act

(d) under section 8 of Evidence Act.

33. A confession made by a conspirator involving other members is relevant against the co-conspirator jointly tried with him and is admissible

(a) under section 8 of Evidence Act

(b) under section 10 of Evidence Act

(d) both (b) & (c).

34. Alibi is governed by

(a) section 6 of Evidence Act

(b) section 8 of Evidence Act

(d) section 11 of Evidence Act.

35. Transaction and instances relating to a right or custom are relevant

(a) under section 6 of Evidence Act

(b) under section 8 of Evidence Act

(d) under section 13 of Evidence Act.

36. Section 13 of Evidence Act applies to

(a) corporal rights

(b) incorporal rights

(d) neither (a) nor (b).

37. Section 13 of Evidence Act

(a) is confined to public rights & does not cover private rights

(b) is not confined to public rights and covers private rights also

(d) either (a) or (c) is correct.

38. Mode of proof of a custom is contained in

(a) section 32(4) of Evidence Act

(b) section 32(7) of Evidence Act

(d) all the above.

39. Section 14 of Evidence Act makes relevant the facts which show the existence of

(a) any state of mind

(b) any state of body or bodily feeling

(d) a particular state of mind and a state of body.

40. Under section 14 of Evidence Act - Explanation I

(a) evidence of general disposition, habit or tendencies is inadmissible

(b) evidence having a distinct and immediate reference to the particular matter in question is admissible

(d) both (a) & (b) are incorrect.

41. Previous conviction of a person is relevant under

(a) explanation I to section 14 of Evidence Act

(b) explanation II to section 14 of Evidence Act

(d) explanation IV to section 14 of Evidence Act.

Multiple Choice Questions for Judicial Service Examination

42. Under section 15 of Evidence Act, facts showing series of similar occurrences, involving the same person are relevant

(a) when it is uncertain whether the act is intentional or accidental

(b) when it is certain that the act is with guilty knowledge

(d) either (b) or (c).

43. Admission has been defined as a statement made by a party or any person connected with him, suggesting any inference as to a fact in issue or relevant fact under certain circumstances, under

(a) section 16 of Evidence Act

(b) section 17 of Evidence Act

(d) section 19 of Evidence Act.

44. Admissions

(a) must be examined as a whole and not in parts

(b) can be examined in parts

(d) both (b) & (c) are correct.

45. Admissions bind the maker

(a) in so far as it relates to facts

(b) in so far as it relates to question of law

(d) neither (a) nor (b).

46. Admissions

(a) must be in writing

(b) must be oral

(d) only in writing & not oral.

47. Admission to be relevant

(a) must be made to the party concerned & not to a stranger

(b) must be made to a stranger

(d) it is immaterial to whom the admission is made but must be made to someone intimately connected & not a stranger.

48. Propositions under Evidence Act are

I. Statement is a genus, admission is a species

& confession is a sub species.

II. Statement & admission are species & confession is a sub species.

III. Statement & admission are genus & confession is a species.

In this context which of the following is correct

(a) I is correct, II & III are incorrect

(b) I & II are correct & III is incorrect

(d) III is correct & I & II are incorrect.

49. Admission can be

(a) formal only

(b) informal only

(d) only formal & not informal.

50. Admissions

(a) are conclusive proof of the matters admitted

(b) are not conclusive proof of the matters admitted but operate as estoppel

(d) both (a) & (c) are correct.

51. Persons who can make admissions are mentioned in

(a) section 17 of Evidence Act

(b) section 20 of Evidence Act

(d) section 18 of Evidence Act.

52. Admissions by agents are

(a) admissible in civil proceedings under all circumstances

(b) admissible in civil proceedings only if the agent has the authority to make admissions

(d) both (b) & (c).

53. Admissions made by a party are evidence against

(a) privies in blood

(b) privies in law

(d) all the above.

54. Which of the following admission is no evidence

(a) an admission by one of the several defendants in a suit against another defendant

(b) an admission by a guardian ad litem against a minor

(d) only (a) & (b).

55. When the liability of a person who is one of the parties to the suit depends upon the liability of a stranger to the suit, then an admission by the stranger in respect of his liability shall be an admission on the part of that person who is a party to the suit. It has been so provided

(a) under section 21 of Evidence Act

(b) under section 20 of Evidence Act

(d) under section 17 of Evidence Act.

56. In a reference made over a disputed matter to a third person, the declaration so made by that person shall be an evidence against the party making a reference, by virtue of

(a) section 17 of Evidence Act

(b) section 19 of Evidence Act

(d) section 21 of Evidence Act.

57. Communication made 'without prejudice' are protected

(a) under section 22 of Evidence Act

(b) under section 23 of Evidence Act

(d) under section 21 of Evidence Act.

58. Confession caused by inducement, threat or promise is contained in

(a) section 24 of Evidence Act

(b) section 25 of Evidence Act

(d) section 27 of Evidence Act.

59. Section 24 of Evidence Act applies

(a) when the inducement, threat or promise comes from a person in authority

(b) when the inducement is of a temporal kind

(d) only (a) & (b) are correct.

60. A confession made to a police officer is inadmissible under

(a) , section 24 of Evidence Act

(b) section 25 of Evidence Act

(d) section 27 of Evidence Act.

61. A confession to be inadmissible under section 25 of Evidence Act

(a) must relate to the same crime for which he is charged

(b) must relate to another crime

(d) only (a) is correct and (b) is incorrect.

62. Which of the following is not given by section 25 of Evidence Act

(a) confessions made to custom officers

(b) confession made to a member of Railway Protection Force

(d) all the above.

63. A retracted confession

(a) can be made solely the basis of conviction

(b) cannot be made solely the basis of conviction under any circumstances

(d) both (a) & (c) are incorrect.

64. A confession made by a person while in police custody is inadmissible as per

(a) section 25 of Evidence Act

(b) section 26 of Evidence Act

(d) section 30 of Evidence Act.

65. A confession made while in police custody is admissible under section 26 of Evidence Act

(a) if made in the presence of a doctor

(b) if made in the presence of a captain of a vessel

(d) all the above.

66. Section 27 control

(a) section 24 of Evidence Act

(b) section 25 of Evidence Act

(d) all the above.

67. Section 27 applies to

(a) discovery of some fact which the police had not previously learnt from other sources and was first derived from the information given by the accused

(b) discovery of some fact which the police had previously learnt from other sources

(c) discovery of some fact which the police had previously learnt from other sources and the accused has also given information regarding the same

(d) all the above.

68. Under section 27 of Evidence Act, 'discovery of fact' includes

(a) the object found

(b) the place from where it is produced

(d) neither (a) nor (b).

69. Section 27 of Evidence Act applies

(a) when the person giving information is an accused but not in police custody

(b) when the person giving information is an accused and is in police custody

(d) when the person is neither in police custody nor an accused.

70. Under section 27 of Evidence Act

(a) the whole statement is admissible

(b) only that portion which distinctly relates to the discovery is admissible

(d) only (a) & not (b).

71. Facts discovered in consequences of a joint information

(a) are not admissible and can not be used against any of the accused person

(b) are admissible and can be used against any one of the accused person

(d) both (a) & (c) are correct.

72. Confession of an accused is admissible against the other co-accused

(a) under section 28 of Evidence Act

(b) under section 29 of Evidence Act

(d) under section 31 of Evidence Act.

73. Confession of one accused is admissible against co-accused

(a) if they are tried jointly for the same offences

(b) if they are tried jointly for different offences

(d) if they are tried for different offences and not jointly.

74. Confession of a co-accused, not required to be on oath and cannot be tested by cross- examination

I. is no evidence within the meaning of section 3 of Evidence Act and cannot be the foundation of a conviction

II. the only limited use which can be made of a confession of a co-accused is by way of furnishing an additional reason for believing such other evidences as exists

III. it is a very weak type of evidence and is much weaker even than the evidence of an approver.

In the aforesaid propositions

(a) all I, II & III are correct

(b) only I & III are correct

(d) only II & III are correct.

75. 'Necessity rule' as to the admissibility of evidence is contained in

(a) section 31 of Evidence Act

(b) section 32 of Evidence Act

(d) section 61 of Evidence Act.

76. Necessity rule as to the admissibility of evidence is applicable, when the maker of a statement

(a) is dead or has become incapable of giving evidence

(b) is a person who can be found but his attendance can not be procured without unreasonable delay or expenses

(d) all the above.

77. Under section 32 of Evidence Act, a statement of a person who is dead, to be admissible

(a) must relate to the cause of his own death

(b) may relate to the cause of someone else' death

(d) both (b) & (c) are correct.

78. The person whose statement is admitted under section 32 of Evidence Act

(a) must be competent to testify

(b) need not be competent to testify

(d) only (a) is correct and (b) & (c) are incorrect.

79. A dying declaration is admissible

(a) only in criminal proceedings

(b) only in civil proceedings

(d) in criminal proceedings alone & not in civil proceedings.

80. A dying declaration

(a) can form the sole basis of conviction without any corroboration by independent evidence

(b) can form the basis of conviction only on corroboration by independent witness

(d) only (b) & (c) are correct.

81. A dying declaration to be admissible

(a) must be made before a Magistrate

(b) must be made before the police officer

(d) may be made either before a magistrate or a police officer or a doctor or a private person.

82. Declaration in course of business are admissible

(a) under section 32(1) of Evidence Act

(b) under section 32(2) of Evidence Act

(d) under section 32(7) of Evidence Act.

83. Declaration as to custom are admissible

(a) under section 32(1) of Evidence Act

(b) under section 32(2) of Evidence Act

(d) under section 32(7) of Evidence Act.

84. Under section 32(4) of Evidence Act, the declaration

(a) as to public rights & customs are admissible

(b) as to private rights & customs are admissible

(d) only as to customs are admissible.

85. Opinions of experts are relevant

(a) under section 45 of Evidence Act

(b) under section 46 of Evidence Act

(d) under section 48 of Evidence Act.

86. Under section 45 of Evidence Act, the opinion of expert can be for

(a) identity of hand writing

(b) identity of finger impression

(d) neither (a) nor (b).

87. Under section 45 of Evidence Act the opinion of expert can be on the question of

(a) Indian law

(b) Foreign law

(d) only (a) & not (b).

88. Opinion of an expert under section 45 of Evidence Act

(a) is a conclusive proof

(b) is not a conclusive proof

(d) either (a) or (c).

89. A disputed handwriting can be proved

(a) by calling an expert

(b) by examining a person acquainted with the handwriting of the writer of the questioned document

(d) all the above.

90. The res inter alia acta is receivable

(a) under section 45 of Evidence Act

(b) under section 46 of Evidence Act

(d) under section 48 of Evidence Act.

91. Entries in the books of accounts regularly kept in the course of business are admissible under section 34 of Evidence Act

(a) if they by themselves create a liability

(b) if they by themselves do not create a liability

(d) either (a) or (b).

92. When the court has to ascertain the relationship between one person and another, the opinion of any person having special means of knowledge and expressed by conduct is admissible

(a) under section 51 of Evidence Act

(b) under section 50 of Evidence Act

(d) under section 49 of Evidence Act.

93. The relationship in section 50 of Evidence Act means

(a) relationship by blood only

(b) relationship by blood or marriage

(d) only (a) and not (b) & (c).

94. Opinion as to relationship of marriage under section 50 of CPC

(a) is admissible in cases of offences against marriage

(b) is admissible in proceedings under Indian Divorce Act

(d) is neither admissible in cases of offences against marriage nor in proceedings under Indian Divorce Act

95. Propositions under Evidence Act are

I. In civil cases, character evidence is inadmissible unless the character of a party is a fact in issue.

II. In criminal cases, the evidence of good character is admissible generally.

III. In criminal proceedings, evidence of bad character is inadmissible unless the same is a fact in issue.

IV. In criminal proceedings evidence of bad character is admissible when evidence of good character has been given. In relation to the above propositions which of the following is correct statement

(a) all the four (I, II, III & IV) are correct

(b) I, II & III are correct but IV is incorrect

(d) I & III are correct but II & IV are incorrect

(e) I, II & IV are correct but III is incorrect

(f) II, III & IV are correct but I is incorrect.

96. Facts of which the judicial notice is to be taken are stated in

section 56 of Evidence Act

section 57 of Evidence Act

section 58 of Evidence Act

section 55 of Evidence Act.

97. List of facts of which the judicial notice has to be taken under section 57 of Evidence Act

(a) is exhaustive

(b) is illustrative only

(d) is neither (a) nor (b).

98. Facts which need not be proved by the parties include

(a) facts of which judicial notice has to be taken

(b) facts which have been admitted by the parties at or before the hearing

(d) neither (a) nor (b).

99. The court may in its discretion call for proving the facts

(a) of which judicial notice has to be taken

(b) which have been admitted otherwise than such admissions

(d) neither (a) nor (b).

100. Oral evidence under section 60 of Evidence Act may be

(a) direct only

(b) hearsay

(d) either (a) or (b).

Tuesday, July 26, 2011

AS REVEALED BY SRI SAIBABA MANDIR
(SHIRDI) CHANDRAPUR[ INDIA ]

Shirdi SAI BABA’s Religion Was Known To No One

Including Himself

Dear friend, do you agree that we have 26 alphabets in English,

as given below
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
S T U V W X Y Z

19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26

With
each alphabet getting a number, in chronological order, as above, study
the following, and bring down the total to a single digit and see the
result yourself

Hindu

S h r e e K r i s h n a

19+8+18+5+5+11+18+9+19+8+14+1=135=9

M u s l i m
M o h a m m e d
13+15+8+1+13+13+5+4=72=9

Jain

M a h a v i r
13+1+8+1+22+9+18=72=9

Sikh

G u r u N a n a k
7+21+18+21+14+1+14+1+11=108=9

Parsi

Z a r a t h u s t r a
26+1+18+1+20+8+21+19+20+18+1=153=9

Buddhist

G a u t a m
7+1+21+20+1+13=63=9

Christian

E s a M e s s i a h
5+19+1+13+5+19+19+9+1+8=99=18=9

Each one ends with number 9

THAT IS NATURE’S CREATION TO SHOW THAT GOD IS ONE.

BUT MAN FIGHTS WITH MAN ON THE BASIS OF RELIGION

AKULA PRAVEEN KUMAR

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Friday, August 12, 2011

RAKSHBANDHAN WISHES TO ALL

Wednesday, August 10, 2011

LGO EXAM MODEL QUESTIONS

Monday, August 8, 2011

ANSWERS FOR EVIDENCE ACT MCQ QUESTIONS 1-100 post dated 4th Aug 2011

Friday, August 5, 2011

SUPPORT FOR SEPARATE TELANGANA STATE

Thursday, August 4, 2011

MC QUESTIONS ON EVIDENCE ACT

Tuesday, July 26, 2011