AKULA PRAVEEN KUMAR: August 2011

Wednesday, August 31, 2011

FOR THE FOLLOWING MATERIAL PL MAIL TO ME

1. GENERAL ENGLISH IN PDF FORMAT

2. ARITHMETIC IN PDF FORMAT

3. SHORT CUT METHODS IN PDF FORMAT

4. VERBAL / NON VERBAL REASONING IN PDF FORMAT

5. GENERAL KNOWLEDGE AND CURRENT AFFAIRS

Tuesday, August 30, 2011

HAPPY VINAYAKA CHAVATHI

Eligibility of officials qualified in Departmental Postmaster Grade – I Examination to appear IPO Examination :

No. 4 – 29 / 2011 – SPB.II

Government of India

Ministry of Communication & I T

Department of Posts

Dak Bhawan, Sansad Marg

New Delhi, Dated 24^th August, 2011

The Chief Postmaster General

Uttar Pradesh Circle

Lucknow – 226 001

Subject: Inspector of Posts Departmental Examination – Eligibility of officials qualified in Departmental Postmaster Grade – I Examination – Reg.

Sir,

I am directed to refer to Circle Office letter No. Rectt / M – 20 / IPOs Exam.-2011 / 3, dated 11.08.2011 on the above subject and to say that candidates who qualified the Departmental Postmaster Grade – I Examination and the officials who are undergoing training for Postmaster Grade – I may be permitted to appear in the Limited Departmental Competitive Examination for promotion to the cadre of Inspector of Posts ( IPO ) to be held on 3-4 September, 2011 , if these officials are not yet appointed as Postmaster Grade – I.

Yours faithfully,

Sd/-

( D K Chanda )

Section Officer ( SPB.II )

Copy to all Heads of Postal Circles / Postmasters General

IP AND LGO EXAM POSTPONED

It was announced by Directorate vide letter no A-34012/02/2011-DE dated 30-08-2011 that the LGO Examination scheduled to be held on 03-09-2011 and Inspector Posts Examination scheduled to be held on 03 & 04-09-2011 have been postponed until further orders and the next dates of both the examinations will be intimated very soon.

Click here to view the said Directorate letter.

Sunday, August 28, 2011

Paper : II IPO Examination 2011 ( Click below on the topic to View)

Topic : CCS (CCA) Rules

Power Point Presentation on CCS(CCA) Rules

Topic : Discipline & CCS (CCA) Rules

Topic : CCS (Conduct) Rules

Topic : FR & SR (Overview)

Topic : FR & SR Rules ( Leave Rules)

175 MCQ on FR & SR and

Paper : III IPO Examination 2011 Preparation(Click below to view the topic)

Topic : Constitution of India

Topic : Indian Penal Code

Topic : Indian Evidence Act

Topic : Right to Information

Quiz on RTI Act

Topic : Consumer Protection Act

Friday, August 26, 2011

IP Exam

Who is first in india, Interesting facts about India,
Indian constitution-1, part 2, Part 3, Part 4, Part 5, RTI, RTI-1,
Law, Evidence Act, CRPC, Online arithmetic test
Postal organisation PO Guide I, Part 3, Part 4, Model Paper-1, Paper 2, Paper 3, Paper 4, Paper 5, Paper 6,
Material management e- MO payment,
FRSR part 1-A, 1-B, 1-C, 1-D, Misc,
FHB-I& amp; amp; amp;II-Paper 1, Paper 2, Paper 3, Paper 4, Paper 5,
Model, List of convention used in mail list,
Mail Bag, GPF Rules 1960 GPO in India History of RMS &amp; Airmail First
Philately Organisation POSB Schemes &amp; features, FAQ, FAQ-2, Core Banking, FAQ-3, FAQ-4 Computer Basic List of abbriviations Schedule of forms Office Procedure PLI/RPLI BDC TA Rules Useful information1 Postal Services &amp; date of beginning Model question papers, paper 2, Paper 3, paper 4, paper 5, Paper 6, Paper 7, Mental ability test Computer awareness, FAQ-1, English test, English Grammar

Sunday, August 14, 2011

Saturday, August 13, 2011

Services Associated With Traditional Postal Communication

1. Certificate of Posting: A certificate of posting is given as an assurance that letters and other articles entrusted to servants or messengers for posting have actually been posted. India Post charges a nominal fee of Rs 3 for three articles or less, for this service.

2. Recall of Articles: During the course of transmission a sender could request the recall of postal article or ask to deliver it to another addressee, provided the following conditions are met. (a) It has not been delivered to the addressee. (b) It has not been confiscated or destroyed by the competent authorities of the country in which the article may be for the time being. (c) It has not been seized by virtue of any law of the country of destination.

3. Poste Restante: It is intended to cater to postal communication needs of travellers. All articles superscribed C/O POSTMASTER or in any other similar way are called poste restante articles. A poste restante article has to be collected by the addressee from the Post Office.

4. Post Box: Customers may get their mail at the post office through Post Boxes which are rented out by the post office. Only fully prepaid articles except parcels are delivered through post boxes. The customer has to pay prescribed rent and a deposit. The customer will be supplied with a Delivery Ticket which should be produced by the customer/his agent when demanded.
5. Post Bag: This system is available in all delivery post offices. In this system a bag with a lock and keys in duplicate are to be supplied by the customer. All fully prepaid unregistered articles addressed to the customer will be placed inside the bag and handed over to the customer during the business hours prescribed for window delivery.

6. Identification Cards: Post office issues Identity cards for the benefit of travellers, tourists and other customers. The card contains photograph of the holder, his signature and full description. The validity period is three years. 7. Business Reply Service: A person who wishes to get reply from his client can use this facility on payment of prescribed fees. Such cards, envelopes can be posted by the client without any postage.

8. Articles Prohibited from Transmission by Post
A) Anything injurious.
1. explosive, dangerous, filthy, noxious or deleterious substance.
2. any sharp instrument not protected.
3. any living creature which is either noxious or likely to injure postal articles or postal officer in course of transmission by post.
B) Tickets, proposals etc relating to unauthorized lotteries (does not include lottery organized or authorized by government.)
C) Anything indecent.

9. Articles which can be registered:
1. Letters.
2. Letter Cards.
3. Book and Pattern Packets.
4. Blind Literature Packets.

5. Parcels / newspapers prepaid with postage at newspaper rates of postage.

10. Articles for which Registration is compulsory
1. Are not delivered through post box or post bag.
2. Any insured article.
3. Any article containing valuables such as cheque, bills of exchange etc.
4. Any article bearing the word “registered”.
5. Any Value Payable article.

11. Infringement of Conditions
1. General Unpaid/ Insufficiently Paid Articles
A) Are not delivered through post box or post bag.
B) Are not included for dispatch during late fee hours.
C) Can be delivered at window of the post office if the addressee calls at the post office for taking delivery.
D) If there is any postage due on registered articles they are not entered in the special delivery list.
E) If addressee refuses to take delivery of the article, it is returned to the sender and the sender has to pay the taxed amount.
F) In respect of all unpaid/ insufficiently paid articles, double the postage/ double the deficiency of postage subject to minimum of Re1/- will be collected.

2. Post Cards A. Post card will be treated as letter and the difference will be collected in the following cases: 1) Any private communication appears on the address portion of the postcard. 2) If the post card is cut/altered/folded.
3) Nothing may be attached to post card except: a) Stamps in payment of postage or other postal fees or stamp duty. b) A label pasted to the card, bearing the name and address of the sender. c) Engravings, illustrations, drawings and photographs on very thin paper and completely adherent to the card. B) Double the deficiency of postage will be collected in the following cases. 1. Any stamps other than postage stamps are affixed. 2. A post card once delivered, is reposted for redirection in a letter box at a different post town.

3. Inland Letter Card Inland Letter Card will be treated as a letter and double the deficiency will be collected in the following cases:
1. If a private inland letter card weighs more than five grams.
2. If there are any enclosures.
3. The words “Inland Letter Card” is not printed on the outside at the top left hand corner on the address side of every folded letter of private manufacture.

4. Book Packet A. If the book packet is more than the size and weight prescribed it shall be returned to sender after cancelling the postage stamps if any. B. If any private communication is enclosed or the envelope is closed, the book packet will be treated as letter or parcel whichever is less and single deficiency will be collected.

5. Book Packet Containing Printed Books and Periodicals
A. If the book packet is more than the size and weight prescribed, it shall be returned to sender after cancelling the postage stamps if any. B. If the book packet contains any private communication or envelope it will be treated as letter or parcel whichever is less and single deficiency will be collected.

6. Pattern and Sample Packets 1. If the article is more than the size and weight prescribed, it shall be returned to sender after cancelling the postage stamps if any. 2. If found to contain anything not permitted in rules, it will be charged on delivery; with letter or parcel postage whichever may be less.

7. Registered Newspapers The article will be treated as a Book Packet or Book Packet containing periodicals.

8. Blind Literature Packets The article will be treated as a letter or parcel, whichever is less, and it will be charged.

9. Parcels a. Prepayment of postage is compulsory. b. If more than one communication is enclosed in a parcel, each of those communications will be treated as unpaid letter and double the amount of postage will be collected c. Unregistered parcels posted in letter boxes will be compulsorily registered. If the parcel is refused by the addressee, the article will be delivered to the sender and registration charge will be collected
MONTHLY INCOME SCHEME HIGHLIGHTS OF THE SCHEME
1. WHO CAN OPEN THE MIS ACCOUNT

An Individual can open this account
A. On his own name.
B. With other one or two individuals jointly.
C. Guardian On behalf of minor.
D. A minor who have completed the age of 10 years.

2. Amount of Deposit.
A. Account can be opened with minimum of Rs 1500/- or in multiple of Rs 1500/-
B. Maximum amount of Deposit in single account is Rs 4,50,000/- and Rs 9,00,000/- in joint account.
C. A declaration regarding non deposit of excess amount in MIS Accounts is necessary.

3. Maturity period of account.
A. Maturity period of account is 6 years.

4. Premature closer of Account.
A. Account can be closed after expiry of one year. Subject to following condition.
1. 2% of Deposit amount will be deducted from principal if an account closed after one year but before expiry of three years.
2. 1% of Deposit amount will be deducted from principal if an account closed after expiry of three years.
3. If account to be closed prematurely due to death of Depositor there will be no deduction from principal amount.

5. INTEREST
A. Rate of interest is 8%.
B. Interest is payable on the monthly basis.
C. First monthly interest is payable on the date of deposit in next month.
D. If the due date of interest is a Sunday or holiday interest is payable on previous day.
E. Monthly Interest can be credited to the Savings Bank account if applied.

6. BONUS
1. Bonus is payable after expiry of 6 years from the date of deposit @10% of deposit for accounts opened before
11-02-06 and @5% of deposit for accounts opened on or after 08-12-2007. No bonus is payable for accounts opened during 12-02-06 to 07-12-2007.

7. Post maturity interest.

Post maturity is payable on maturity amount @ Post Office Savings Bank interest rate for maximum of 24 months.
SENIOR CITIZEN SAVINGS SCHEME WHO CAN OPEN THE SCSS ACCOUNT?

1. An individual
A) Who attained the age of 60 years or above on the date of opening the account.
B) Who has attained the age of 55 years or more but less than 60 years and who has retired under a voluntary retirement scheme or a Special voluntary retirement scheme on the date of opening the account, Subject to before three months from the date of retirement?

2. OPENING OF ACCOUNT
a) Any depositor may open an account at any deposit office by making an application in form ‘A’ along with pay in slip in form ‘D’ duly filled in along with age proof.
b) Depositor may operate more than one account under this scheme subject to the amount of deposit shall not exceed the maximum limit of Rs 15,000,00/-

d) Provided that more than one account shall not be opened in the same deposit office during a calendar month. e) The depositor may open an account in individual capacity of jointly with spouse.

3. Deposit and withdrawal.
A. There shall be any one deposit in the account in multiple of one thousand rupees and not exceeding Rs 15,000,00/-
B. There will be no withdrawal before the expiry of a period of 5 years
C. Depositor can extend the account for further 3 years by making an application in from ‘B’

4. MODE OF DEPOSIT
A. In cash if the deposit is less than one lakh.
B. By cheque or D.D. drawn in favor of Deposit office or in the favor of Depositor and endorsed in favor of Deposit Office.
C. The date of realization will be the date of Deposit.
D. The collection charges of outstation cheques should be paid by the Depositor.

5. NOMINATION
A. The Depositor may at the time of opening the account nominate a person who at event of death of Depositor will be entitled for payment due.

B. If the nomination is not made at the time of opening the Depositor can make by application in form ‘C’
C. Cancellation, variation of Nomination can make by fill in the form ‘C’
D. Nomination facility shall be available in case of joint account also. In such case the joint holder will be the first person entitled to receive the amount payable in the event of death of Depositor.
E. In the case of joint account or where the sole nominee is the spouse the spouse may continue the account.
F. In the case of joint account or where the sole nominee is the spouse the spouse shall also eligible to make or vary the earlier nomination.

6. INTEREST
A. Rate of interest will be 9%
B. Interest will be payable from the date of deposit to 31st March,31st June, 30th September, 31st December and thereafter interest shall be payable on to 31st March,31st June, 30th September, 31st December.
C. Interest shall be payable on previous day if due date is payable on Holiday or Sunday.
D. If so authorized interest payable on due dates shall be credited to Depositor’s Savings Bank Account in the deposit office.
E. If the interest payable every quarters not claimed by Depositor, Such interest shall not earned additional interest.
F. In the case of an account continued after maturity the deposit in such account shall earn interest at the rate applicable to the new account opened or to be opened under t6e provisions of these rules on the rate of maturity.
G. Post maturity interest payable at the Savings Bank rate up to the end of the month proceeding the month of closer of the account.

7. CLOSER OF ACCOUNT
1. Depositor may close the account after 5 years on production of passbook and written application in form ‘E’
2. In the case of non closer of the account after maturity by the Depositor or not applied for extension the account will be treated as matured.
3. In the case of death of Depositor the nominee or heir of the Depositor can close the account by application in form ‘F’

9. PREMATURE CLOSER OF ACCOUNT
1. Account can be closed after expiry of one year from the date of opening the account subject to following conditions.
A. If the account closed after one year but before expiry of two years 1.5 % amount will be deducted from the amount of deposit.
B. If the account closed after expiry of two years but before expiry of five years the deduction of 1 % will be made.
2. If the depositor availing the facility of extension of account may be permitted to withdraw the deposit and close the account ant any time after expiry of one year of extension without deduction.
10. ISSUE OF DUPLICATE PASSBOOK
1. In the case of lost, mutilated or damage of passbook the duplicate passbook will be issued on payment of Rs 10/- for first issue of duplicate passbook,
2. At second time of issue of duplicate passbook the fee will be Rs 20/- for all subsequent instance.
3. For issue of duplicate passbook application on plain paper is necessary.

11. UPDATING OF PASSBOOK.
1. The passbook should be presented at Deposit office for updating at least once in a year where auto transfer of quarterly interest is applied.
2. The passbook must accompany with withdrawal of interest.

12. TRANSFER OF ACCOUNT ONE OFFICE TO ANOTHER
1. A Depositor may apply on Form ‘G’ enclosing the passbook there to, for transfer of his account from one office to another in case change of residence.
2. Provided that where the deposit is Rs One Lakh or above a transfer fee of Rs 5/- per One Lakh of deposit shall be payable for first transfer.
3. For second and subsequent transfer the fee will be Rs 10/- per one lakh.

13. DEPOSIT BY NON RESIDENT INDIANS AND HINDU UNDIVIDED FAMILIES.
1. N R I are not eligible to open an account in this scheme provided that if a depositor opened an account and the n he become a NRI he may continue the account up to 5 years
2. But he cannot extend the account.
3. HUF is not eligible to open the account under this scheme.

Formula for calculation of broken days period interest of SCSS account

Amount of Deposit x No of days x 9 (Rate of Interest)
--------------------------------------------------------------------------
No of days in year x 100

Interest for broken period should be paid after deduction of Discount in case of Premature closer

IMPORTANT CHANGE IN POST OFFICE SAVINGS BANK

SANCTIONING LIMIT OF WITHDRAWALS BY S. B. P/A AT INSTANT COUNTER AND BRANCH POSTMASTERS IS NOW RS 5000/-

THE PUBLIC PROVIDENT FUND SCHEME, 1968 1 GSR 1136:-
1n exercise of the powers conferred by Section 3 of the Public Provident Fund Ac1t, 1968(23 of 1968), the Central Government hereby makes the following scheme, namely:- 1. Short title and commencement: - 1) This scheme may be called the Public Provident fund Scheme, 1968. 2) It shall come into force on 1st July 1968. 2. Definitions:- In this Scheme, unless the context otherwise requires:- (a) 'Account' means a Public Provident Fund Account under this scheme. (b) 'Accounts Office' means an office or branch of the State Bank of India, any subsidiary bank of the State Bank of India (excluding a pay office, a sub pay-office or any other office managed by single office or clerk) and any other office authorised by the Central Government to receive subscriptions under the Scheme; (c) 'Accounts Officer' means the person who for the time being is Incharge of an Accounts Office. (d) 'Act' means the Public Provident Fund Act, 1968 (23 of 1968) (e) 'Form' means a form appended to this scheme; (ee) 'Guardian' in relation to a minor, means:- (i) Father or mother; and (ii) Where neither parent is alive, or where the only living parent is incapable of acting, a person entitled under the law for the time being in force to have care of the property of minor; (f)'Year' means the financial year (1st April to 31st March)
3. Limit of subscription: - (1)Any individual may, on his own behalf or on behalf of a minor of whom he is the guardian, subscribe to the Public Provident Fund (thereafter referred to as the Fund) any amount not less than Rs. 500/- and not more than Rs. 70,000/- in a year. Note:- The existing accounts opened by HUF and an association of persons or a body of individuals consisting in either case, only of husband and wife governed by the system of community of property in the State of Goa and the Union Territories of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu before 13.5.2005 will continue till maturity and will not be extended further. No interest will be paid period after the date of maturity. The deposits/withdrawals in/from these accounts shall be allowed to be made in accordance with the said rules. Any such accounts opened on or after 13.5.2005 shall be treated as void ab-initio and immediate action should be taken to close such accounts and refund the deposits without any interest to the subscribers. Such accounts once closed cannot be opened again w.e.f. 13.5.2005. 3) Non-Resident Indians are not eligible to open an account under the Public Provident Provided that if a resident, who subsequently becomes Non Resident Indian during the currency of the maturity period prescribed under Public Provident Fund Scheme, may continue to subscribe to the Fund till its maturity on a Non Repatriation Basis.

4. Manner of making the subscription:- (1) Every individual desirous of subscribing to Fund under the Scheme for the first time either on his own behalf or on behalf of a minor of whom he is the guardian shall apply to the Accounts Office in Form A, or as near thereto as possible, together with the amount of initial subscription which shall be in integral multiples of Rs.5/-
(2) On receipt of an application under sub-paragraph (1), the Accounts Office shall open an account in the name of the subscriber and issue a passbook to him , where in all amount of deposit/withdrawals, loans and repayment thereof together with interest due shall be entered over the signature of the Accounts Officer with the date stamp. (3)The subscriber shall deposit his subscription with the Accounts Office with chalan in Form B, or as near there to as possible. The counterfoil of the challan shall be returned to the depositor by the Accounts Office, duly evidenced by receipt. In the case of deposits made by cheque or draft or pay order, the Accounts Office may issue a paper token to the depositor pending realization of the proceeds. (4) Every subscription shall be made in cash or crossed cheque or draft or pay order in favour of the Accounts Office at the place at which that office is situated. (5)Where a deposit is made by means of an outstation cheque or instrument collection charges at the prescribed rate shall be payable along with the deposit and the date of realization of the amount shall be the date of deposit. 5. Number of subscription:- The subscription, which shall be in multiples of Rs5/-may for any year, be paid in to the account in one lump sum or installments not exceeding twelve in a year.
6. Transfer of Account: - A subscriber may apply for transfer of his account from "Accounts Office” to another "Accounts Office".
7. Issue of duplicate passbook, etc: - (1) In the event of loss or destruction of a passbook issued by an Accounts Office, the Accounts Office may, on an application made to it in this behalf and on payment of rupee one by the subscriber, issue a duplicate thereof to him.
(2) Condition of default:- A subscriber who fails to subscribe in an year according to the limits specified in paragraph 3, may approach the Accounts Office for condonation of the default, onpayment, for each year of default, a fee of Rs. 50/- along with arrear subscription of Rs 500/-for each year.
8. Interest:- Interest at the rate notified by the Central Government in the official gazette from time to time, shall be allowed for a calendar month on the lowest balance at credit of an account between the close of the fifth day and the end of the month and shall be credited to the account at the end of each year. Provided that where the interest to be credited contains a part of a rupee, then, if such part is fifty paisa or more, it shall be increased to one complete rupee, and if such part is less than fifty paisa, it shall be ignored. Note:-The rates of interest payable on deposits and the balance in PPF Accounts fixed from time to time since the introduction of the Scheme are given in the Schedule at the end of the Chapter.
9. Withdrawals from the Fund: - (1) Any time after the expiry of five years from the end of the year, in which the initial subscription was made, a subscriber may, if he so desires, apply in Form C or as near there to as possible, together with his passbook to the Accounts Office withdrawing from the balance to his credit, an amount not exceeding fifty per cent of the amount that stood to his credit at the end of the fourth year immediately preceding the year of withdrawal or at the end of the preceding year, which ever is lower, less the amount of loan, if any, drawn by him under paragraph 10 and which remains to be repaid. More than one withdrawal shall be permissible during any one year. (2)On receipt of an application under sub paragraph (1) the Accounts Office may, after satisfying itself that the amount of withdrawal applied for is not in excess of the limit prescribed in sub Paragraph (I) and that the applicant ha s, till the date of application, been subscribing according to the limit specified in Paragraph 3, subject to the provisions of sub-paragraph (4), permit the withdrawal and enter the amount withdrawn in the pass book.
(3)Closure of account or continuation of account without deposits after maturity:- Not withstanding provisions of sub-paragraph (1), any time after the expiry of 15 years from the end of the year in which the initial subscription was made by him, a subscriber may, if so desires, apply in Form C or as near thereto as possible together with his pass book to the Account Office, on receipt of such an application from the subscriber, shall subject to the provisions of sub-paragraph (4) allow the withdrawal of the entire balance (together with interest up to the last day of the month preceding the month in which the application for withdrawal is made) after making adjustments, if any, in respect of any interest due from the subscriber on loans taken by him and close his account. Provided that a subscriber may, if so desires make withdrawal of the amount standing to his credit, from time to time, in installments not exceeding one in a year.
(3A)Continuation of account with deposits after maturity: - Subject to the provisions subparagraph (3h) a subscriber may, on the expiry of 15 years from the end of the year in which the initial subscription as made but before the expiry of one year thereafter, may exercise an option with, Accounts office in Form H, or as near thereto as possible, that he would continue to subscribe further block period of 5 years according to the limits of subscription specified in paragraph 3. (3B) In the even of a subscriber opting to subscribe for the aforesaid block period he shall be eligible to make partial withdrawals not exceeding one every year by applying to the Accounts Office in form C, or as near there to as possible, subject to the condition that the total of the withdrawals, during the 5year block period, shall not exceed 60 per cent of the balance at his credit at the commencement of the said period.
Note: -A subscriber may at his option (to be exercised before the expiry of the first year of every extended block period) avail of this facility for a further block of 5 years on expiry of 20 years or on expiry of 25 years and so on, from the end of the year in which the initial subscription was made. (4) Where the application is made by a person who has made subscription to the Fund on behalf of a minor of whom he is the guardian, he shall furnish a certificate in the following form, namely.. .. . .. .. "Certified that the amount sought to be withdrawn is required for the use of ……………………………………. who is alive and is still a minor". 1O. Loans: - (1) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph 9, any time after the expiry of one year from the end of the year in which the initial subscription was made but before expiry of five years from the end of the year in which the initial subscription was made, a subscriber may, if he so desires, apply in Form D or as near thereto as possible ,together with his passbook to the Accounts Office for obtaining a loan consisting of a sum of whole rupees not exceeding twenty five percent of amount that stood to his credit at the end of the second year immediately preceding the year in which the loan is applied for. (2) On receipt of an application under sub-paragraph (1), the Accounts Office may, after satisfying itself that the amount of loan applied for is not in excess of the limit prescribed in sub-paragraph (1) and that the application has, till date of application, been subscribing according to I the limit specified in paragraph 3, subject to the provisions of sub paragraph (3), sanction the loan and enter the amount in the passbook. (3) Where the application is made by a person who has made subscriptions to the Fund behalf of a minor of whom he is the guardian, he shall furnish a certificate in the following form, namely: - "Certified that the amount for which loan is applied for is required for the use of who is alive and is still a minor". Or
(4) A subscriber shall not be entitled to get a fresh loan so long as earlier loan has not been repaid in full together with interest there on.

11. Repayment of loan and interest:- (1) The principal amount of a loan under this Scheme shall be repaid by the subscriber before the expiry of thirty six months from the first day of the month following the month in which the loan is sanctioned. The repayment may be made either in one lump sum or in two or more monthly installments within the prescribed period of thirty-six months repayment will be credited to the subscriber's account. (2)After the principal of the loan is fully repaid, the subscriber shall pay interest there on in not more than two monthly installments at the rate of one per cent per annum of the principal of period commencing from the first day of the month following the month in which the loan is drawn up to the last day of the month in which the last installment of the loan is repaid. Provided that where the loan is not or is repaid only in part within the prescribed period of thirty six months, interest on the amount of loan out standing shall be charged at six percent per annum instead of at one percent per annum from the first day of the month following them on thin which the loan was obtained o the last day of the month in which the loan is finally repaid. . (3) The interest on the amount of loan outstanding under the provision to sub-paragraph (2) and any portion of interest payable, but not paid, on any loan, the principal amount of which has already been repaid within the prescribed period of thirty six months, may, on becoming due, be debited to the subscriber's account. (4) The interest recoverable shall accrue to the Central Government.

12. Nomination and repayment after death of subscriber: -
(1) A subscriber to the Fund may nominate in Form G or, as near thereto as possible, one or more persons to receive the amount standing to his credit in the event of his death before the amount has become payable or, having become payable, has not been paid. (2) No nomination shall be made in respect of an account opened on behalf of a minor. (3)A nomination made by a subscriber may be cancelled or varied by a fresh nomination in Form F or, as near thereto as possible, by giving notice in writing to the Accounts Office in which the account stands. (4)Every nomination and every cancellation or variation thereof shall be registered in the Account office and shall be effective from the date of such registration, the particulars of which shall be entered in the passbook. (5) If any nominee is a minor, the subscriber may appoint any person to receive the amount due under the account in the event of the death of the subscriber during the minority of the nominee. (6)Notwithstanding the provisions contained in paragraph 9- (i)If a subscriber to an account in respect of which a nomination is in force dies, the nominee or nominees may make an application in Form G or, as near thereto as possible, to the Accounts Office together with proof of death of the subscriber and on receipt of such application all amounts standing to the credit of the subscriber after making adjustment, if any, in respect of interest on loans taken by the subscriber shall be repaid by the Accounts Office itself to the nominee or nominees. Provided that if any nominee is dead, the surviving nominee or nominees shall, in addition to the proof of death of the subscriber, also furnish proof of the death of the deceased nominee. (ii)Where there is no nomination in force at the time of death of the subscriber, the amount standing to the credit of the deceased after making adjustment, if any, in respect of interest on loans taken by the subscriber, shall be repaid by the Accounts Office to the legal heirs of the deceased on receipt of application form G in this behalf
Provided that the balance up to Rs. l lakh may be paid to the legal heirs on production of (i)a letter of indemnity, (ii)an affidavit, (iii) a letter of disclaimer on affidavit, and (iv) a certificate of death of subscribers, on stamped paper, in the forms as in Annexure to Form G (7)A subscriber to the fund cannot nominate a trust as his nominee.
13. Power to relax: - Where the Central Government is satisfied that the operation of any of the provisions of this Scheme causes undue hardship to a subscriber, it may, by order for reasons to be recorded in writing, relax the requirements of that provision in a manner not inconsistent with the provisions of the Act. Rates of interest payable in PPF accounts as fixed from time to time.
Recurring Deposit Account

Minimum Amount of Deposit Rs 10/- Can be opened in multiple of Rs 5/-
Maturity period of RD account is 5 years. It can be continued for next 5 years.
Deposit should be made every month within colander month. Default fee should be payable at 20 paisa for each month of delay Rs 10/-
Maximum defaults allowed in an account are four. After four defaults the account will be treated as discontinue. It can be revived within two months from the fifth default, if not it cannot be continued.
Premature closer is permitted after completion of three years from the date of opening. Interest at Savings Bank Rate is payable on premature closer.
One withdrawal is permitted from the account subject to the amount of withdrawal shall not be more than half of the balance amount. It can be repaid in one lump sum or in installments with interest. Rate of interest for refund of withdrawal is :-

AT 15% FOR WITHDRAWAL MADE BEFORE 1ST JANUARY 2005.

AT THE 2% + RATE OF 5TD ON THE DATE OF WITHDRAWAL
RATE OF REBATE ON ADVANCE DEPOSIT OF POST OFFICE RUCURRING DEPOSIT ACCOUNT
RATE OF REBATE FOR DENOMINATION RS 10/-
IF ADVANCE DEPOSIT MADE FOR 6 MONTHS :- RS 1/-
IF ADVANCE DEPOSIT MADE FOR 12 MONTHS:- RS 4/-
FOR MORE THAN 12 MONTHS
FOR EVERY ADDITIONAL 6 MONTHS:- RS 1/-

________________ RATE OF INTEREST ON WITHDRAWAL FROM POST OFFICE RD ACCOUNTS
AT 15% FOR WITHDRAWAL MADE BEFORE 1ST JANUARY 2005.

AT THE 2% + RATE OF 5TD ON THE DATE OF WITHDRAWAL.

----------------------------- POST MATURITY INTEREST ON DISCOUNTINUED POST OFFICE RECURRING DEPOST ACCOUNTS
FOR COMPLETED YEARS AT 9.25%
FOR COMPLETED MONTHS 3.5%

POST MATURITY INTEREST PAYABLE FOR MAXIMUM 5 YEAR ------------------------------
PROTECTED SAVINGS SCHEME Under Protected Savings Scheme, on death, of depositor before maturity of the account, the legal heir is entitled to get full maturity value, subject to the conditions:- (1). Age of the depositor at the time of opening should be between 18 and 53 years. (2). Benefit is limited to the maturity value of Rs. 50/- denomination. (3). Account should not have been discontinued as on the date of death. (4). At least two years should have been completed from the date of opening. (5). At least 24 deposits should have been made. (6). There should be no default outstanding and withdrawal in first 24 months.(7)claim should be submitted within the 1 year after death of the depositor.
FORMULA USED FOR PREPARING READY RECKNOWER IS IBB = DENOMINATION X NO OF MONTHS PAID X (NO OF MONTHS PAID – 1) /2 Example = Dn =100 /- No of months paid = 37 100 x (37 x 36) /2 = 66600/-
Time Deposit Account

HIGHLIGHTS OF TD ACCOUNT

There are 4 categories of TD accounts. (1TD, 2TD, 3TD AND 5TD)
TD Accounts can be opened in multiple of Rs 200/- There is no maximum limit for no of accounts and for amount.
Interest of TD is calculated at Quarterly compounded rate.
It is profitable than KISAN VIKAS PATRA
Post Maturity interest is payable at Post Office Savings Bank rate for maximum of 24 months.

CALCULATION OF POST MATURITY INTEREST OF TD ACCOUNTS

POST MATURITY INTEREST IS PAYABLE ON MATURITY AMOUNT OF TD ACCOUNTS.
POSTMATURITY INTEREST IS PAYABLE FOR MAXIMUM 24 MONTS ONLY.
RATE OF INTEREST FOR POSTMATURITY PERIOD IS EQUAL TO THE RATE OF POST OFFICE SAVINGS BANK INTEREST APPLICABLE AT THE TIME OF MATURITY.

RATE OF SAVINGS BANK INTEREST AT DIFFERENT PERIOD
WONDER OF POST OFFICE TIME DEPOSIT SCHEME

Wonder of TD account is that an amount deposited in 3 TD gives more benefit than it invested in Kisan Vikas Patra. For example:-

If an amount of Rs 1, 00,000/- invested in Kisan Vikas Patra it will become Rs 120785/- after 3years.

If an amount of Rs 1, 00,000/- invested in 3 Year Time Deposit Scheme it will become Rs 7450/- x 3 + 1, 00,000/- = 122350/- after 3years.

If an amount of Rs 1, 00,000/- invested in 3 Year Time Deposit Scheme and interest payable on expiry of 1st and 2nd year reinvested in 2 year and 1 year Time Deposit scheme respectively it will become:-

1. Principal Rs. 1,00,000/-
2. 3rd interest Rs 7,450/-
3. 1st year interest
1) 7450-7400 = Rs. 50/- 2) 7400 + (493 x 2 = 986 (2 Td int.) Rs. 8386/- 4. 2nd year interest 1) 7450-7400= Rs 50/- 2) 7400 + 474(1td int.) = Rs 7874/- Rs 123810/-
PREMATURE WITHDRAWAL OF TD ACCOUNT Premature withdrawal of a Deposit may be allowed subject to the following conditions namely:- A) No deposit may be withdrawn before the expiry of six months from the date of deposit. B) Where a deposit in a 1-year, 2-year, or 5 year account is withdrawn prematurely after 6 months but before the expiry of year from the date of deposit, no interest shall be payable to the depositor. C) Where a deposit in a 2-year, 3-year, or 5-year account is withdrawn prematurely after the expiry of one year from the date of deposit, interest on such deposit shall be payable to the depositor for the completed years and months falling in the period commencing on the date of deposit and ending with the date of withdrawal and such interest shall be calculated at the rate which shall be two per cent less than the rate specified for deposit of 1-year, 2-year, or 3-years as the case may be, in the concerned Table under rule 7.
Explanation: - Where the complete years and months in the case of a deposit in a 5-year account exceeds 3 years, such interest shall be calculated at the rate which shall be Two per cent less than the rate specified for a deposit of 3 years in concerned table under rule 7. c) Any interest already paid on the deposit may be recovered from the amount of repayment of deposit and the interest payable under this Rule. D) No separate application is necessary. E) In no case of premature withdrawal of a deposit or premature closure of an account, the commission already paid to agent, if any, is to be recovered. F) No penal interest should be deducted from the interest rate when account is prematurely closed by claimant of deceased depositor. But interest rate should be applicable for the period for the period the amount was deposited with
PREMATURE ENCASHMENT OF 6 NSC (VIII)PREMATURE ENCASHMENT OF 6 NSC (VIII) IS ALLOWED IN FOLLOWING CASES ONLY 1) Death of holder or death one of the holder in the case of joint holders.
2) On forfeiture by a pledgee being gazzetted officer when the pledge is in conformity with the rule.
3) When ordered by court of law.

Friday, August 12, 2011

RAKSHBANDHAN WISHES TO ALL

R . A . K . H . I

R : Relationship
A : Affection
K : Knitting together
H : Him (Brother) & Her (Sister)
I : Interminably

Wednesday, August 10, 2011

LGO EXAM MODEL QUESTIONS

Prepared / Compelled by Akula. Praveen Kumar, Medak H.O (AP)

Mobile no. :9849636361, 8019549939

FOR MORE QUESTIONS & MATERIAL PLEASE MAIL TO ME

Suggested Questions from Postal Manual Volume- VI, PO Guide, Postal Manual Volume-V

1. Money order paid returns are prepared: -

(a) Daily (b) Weekly (c) Fortnightly (d) Monthly

Ans: - (c) (Rule-79 Volume-VI, Part-III)

2. Which letter is to be prefixed to a TMO paid in the Journal of MO s paid: -

(a) R (b) S (c) T (d) None of the above.

Ans: - (c) (Rule-44 Volume-VI, Part-III)

3. The currency of an Indian Postal Order is normally: -

(a) 6 months from the last day of the month in which it was sold,
(b) 2 years from the last day of the month in which it was sold,
(c) 5 years from the last day of the month in which it was sold,
(d) 10 years from the last day of the month in which it was sold,

Ans: - (b) (Rule-195 Volume-VI, Part-III)

4. The amount of commission to be realized at the time of sale of an IPO of denomination of Rs.100/ - is:-
(a) Rs. 10/- (b) Rs. 5/- (c) Re.1/- (d) Rs.2/-

Ans: - (a) (Clause-244 PO Guide Part-I)

5. The 1st class mails handed by the Post Office are of: -

(a) 3 types-Letters, Letter Cards & Post Cards,
(b) 4 types--- Letters, Letter Cards, Book Packets & Post Cards,
(c) 5 types---- Letters, Letter Cards, Book Packets, Parcels & Post Cards,
(d) None of the above.

Ans: - (a) (Clause-98 PO Guide Part-I)

6. The maximum admissible weight of a Book Packet posted in Post is: -
(a) 2 KG (b) 3 KG (c) 4 KG (d) 5 KG.

Ans: - (d) (Clause-98 PO Guide Part-I)
7. A Franking Machine has: -
(a) 1 meter (b) 2 meters (c) 3 meters (d) 4 meters
Ans: - (b) (Clause-11 PO Guide Part-I)

8. In case of each Business Reply article, the Post Office will charge an additional postage of:
(a) Re. 1/- (b) Rs. 2/- (c) Rs. 3/- (d) Rs.4/-
Ans: - (a) (Clause-11 PO Guide Part-I)

9. The Postal Index Number (PIN) must contain: -

(a) 5 digits (b) 4 digits (c) 7 digits (d) 6 digits
Ans: - (d) (Rule-107 Postal Manual Volume-V)

10. The postal articles refused by the addressee are to be: -

(a) Returned to sender or to RLO
(b) To be kept in deposit in the office of delivery
(c) To be handed over to the Overseer for delivery
(d) None of the above.
Ans: - (a)

11. Minimum amount taxed on unpaid / insufficiently paid articles posted in post is: -

(a) Re. 1/- (b) Rs. 2/- (c) Rs.5/- (d) Rs. 6/-
Ans: - (a)

12. Addressee's Instructions are of: -
(a) 1 type---permanent instruction
(b) 2 types-temporary instruction & permanent instruction
(c) 3 types--- temporary instruction, semi- permanent instruction & permanent instruction
(d) None of the above.
Ans: - (b) (Rule-133 Postal Manual Vol.-VI Part-I)

13. Poste Restante are to be kept in deposit for: -

(a) 7 days from the date of receipt,
(b) 15 days from the date of receipt,
(c) 1 month days from the date of receipt,
(d) 2 months days from the date of receipt
Ans: - (c)

14. Undelivered Acknowledgements cards are to be destroyed after: -

(a) 15 days (b) 1 month (c) 4 months (d) None of the above.
Ans: - (c)

15. Redirection Fee for Parcel is: -
(a) 50% of the ordinary postage,
(b) Nil,
(c) 25% of the ordinary postage,
(d) None of the above.
Ans: - (a) (Clause 67-71 PO Guide Part-I)
16. Any postal article can be redirected: -
(a) By the office of posting
(b) By both the office of posting & the office of destination
(c) By any intermediate office/section handling the article
(d) Only by the office of destination.
Ans: - (d) (Clause 67-71 PO Guide Part-I)

17. Ordinary postal article received in damaged condition in the o/o delivery: -
(a) Should be returned to the o/o posting
(b) Should be sent out for delivery at once
(c) Should be forwarded to the o/o the Divisional Superintendent
(d) Should be enclosed in a protecting cover with a remark made on the top & the sent out for
delivery.
Ans: - (d) (Rule-145 Postal Manual Volume-V)

18. An Inland Parcel must be Registered if its weight exceeds: -
(a) 1 KG (b) 2 KG (c) 4 KG (d) None of the above.
Ans: - (c) (Clause 164 PO Guide Part-I)

19. Currency Notes, Coins, precious stones can be sent by: -
(a) Insured Post (b) Registered Post (c) Ordinary Post
(d) Under Certificate of Posting.
Ans: - (a) (Clause 184 PO Guide Part-I)

20. The maximum limit of Insurance is: -
(a) Rs. 10, 000/-, (b) Rs. 50, 000/- (c) Rs. 1 lakh (d) None of the above.
Ans: - (c) (Clause 184 PO Guide Part-I)

21. An Insured Bundle is prepared when there is: -
(a) More than 2 insured articles addressed to the same office of delivery
(b) More than 3 insured articles addressed to the same office of delivery
(c) More than 5 insured articles addressed to the same office of delivery
(d) More than 1 insured article addressed to the same office of delivery.
Ans: - (d) (Rule-89A Postal Manual Volume-V)

22. Delivery Slip in respect of Registered Articles to be delivered at the Window of the Post Office is prepared in: -
(a) Single Copy (b) Duplicate, (c)Triplicate (d) Not at all prepared.
Ans: - (a) (Rule-164 Postal Manual Volume-VI Part-I)

23. The addressee of Registered Article to which an Acknowledgement Card is attached must sign: -
(a) Delivery Slip only (b) Acknowledgement Card only
(c) Both the Delivery Slip & the Acknowledgement Card (d) None of the above.
Ans: - (c) (Rule-183 Postal Manual Vol.-VI Part-I)

24. The addressee of a Value Payable (V.P.) article may request the Post Office to detain his article in the Post Office by payment of warehousing charges for a period of: -

(a) 7 days (b) 5 days (c) 14 days (d) 1 month.
Ans: - (a) (Rule-222 Postal Manual Vol.-VI Part-I)

25. The maximum weight/aggregate weight of Parcel (s) (except VP Parcels and Parcels marked Poste Restante) that can be delivered at the premises of an addressee is: -

(a) 5 KG (b) 10 KG (c) 15 KG (d) 20 KG
Ans: - (b) (Clause 41 PO Guide Part-I)

26. The amount of commission charged on a Service Money Order amounting to Rs. 1000/- is

(a) Rs. 25/- (b) Rs.50/- (c) Rs. 100/- (d) NIL
Ans: - (d)

27. A Family Allotment Money Order is remitted by the: -

(a) Defence authorities (b) Telecom authorities
(c) General members of public (d) None of the above.
Ans: - (a)

28. The maximum limit of a single ordinary Money Order is: -
(a) Rs. 2000/- (b) Rs. 5000/- (c) Rs. 10,000/- (d) Rs. 1 lakh.
Ans: - (b) (Clause 217 PO Guide Part-I)

29. A Money Order (MO-8) form is divided into: -
(a) 2 parts (b)3 parts (c) 4 parts (d) 5 parts
Ans: - (c) (Rule-8 Postal Manual Vol. VI Part-II)

30. A Money Order paid to an illiterate payee is paid: -

(a) After obtaining the thumb impression of the payee and getting it attested by a reliable witness other than the paying official
(b) After obtaining the thumb impression of the payee
(c) To a literate family member of the payee
(d) After obtaining the thumb impression of the payee and getting it attested by the paying official.
Ans: - (a) (Rule-38 Postal Manual Volume VI Part-II)

31. The name of the payee of a Money Order can be altered: -
(a) On payment of a second commission in cash,
(b) On payment of a second commission in the shape of Postage Stamps
(c) Free of cost
(d) None of the above.
Ans: - (b) (Clause 227 PO Guide Part-I)

32. The Broken Amount of an Indian Postal Order can be made up by affixing: -
(a) 3 unused Postage stamps (b) 4 unused Postage stamps
(c) 5 unused Postage stamps (d) Not permissible.
Ans: - (a) (Clause-245 PO Guide Part-I)

33. Maximum amount of compensation admissible in case of loss/destruction of a Registered article is: -
(a) Amount of actual loss (b) Rs. 50/- (c) Rs. 100/-
(d) As claimed either by the addressee or by the sender.
Ans: - (c) (Clause-170 PO Guide Part-I)

34. Advance Remittance (or Minus Entry) is: -
(a) Cash is received prior to the receipt of the SO/ BO daily account
(b) Cash is received after to the receipt of the SO/ BO daily account
(c) Cash is received in short than as mentioned in the SO/BO daily account
(d) None of the above.
Ans: - (a) (Rule-74, Postal Manual Vol.-VI, Part-III)

35. The word "in transit" means: -
(a) The value of cash/stamps which has been remitted and already accounted at the Cash Office
(b) The value of cash/stamps which has been remitted but not yet accounted at the Cash Office
(c) The value of cash/stamps which has not been remitted to the Cash Office on the same day
(d) None of the above.
Ans: - (b) (Rule-74, Postal Manual Vol.-VI, Part-III)

36. Amount due from a Brach Post Office is: -
(a) Total of closing balance of BO + total amount of transit
(b) Total of closing balance of BO
(c) Authorized cash balance of BO
(d) Total amount of transit of the BO.
Ans: - (a) (Rule-74, Postal Manual Vol.-VI, Part-III)

37. The Sub Office (S.O.) daily account is prepared by the: -
(a) Treasurer of the S.O. (b) Sub-Account PA of the S.O.
(c) Sub-Postmaster of the S.O. (d) None of the above.
Ans: - (c) (Rule-29, Postal Manual Vol.-VI, Part-III)

38. S.O. slip is prepared and sent: -
(a) From H.O. to S.O. (b) From S.O. to B.O. (c) From S.O. to H.O. (d) From S.O. to the o/o the Divisional Superintendent.
Ans: - (a) (Rule-18, Postal Manual Vol.-VI, Part-III)

39. The Treasurer's Cash Book is divided into: -
(a) Only 1 part--- "receipts" (b) Only 1 part--- "payments"
(c) 2 parts---"receipts" & "payments" (d) 3 parts---"receipts", "payments" & "cash/
stamps in transit".
Ans: - (c) (Rule-86, Postal Manual Vol.-VI, Part-III)

40. The maximum weight of an article sent by "Express Parcel Post" is: -
(a) 10 KG (b) 25 KG (c) 30 KG (d) 35 KG.
Ans: - (d)

41. Registered articles addressed to Shri Ramesh, 27, Highway Road, Chegunta will be delivered
(a) only to Shri Ramesh his residential address
(b) to any one residing at the address given above
(c) to a messenger from Shri Ramesh without any authorization letter
(d) none of a, b, c.
Ans. (a) (Clause 36-PO Guide Part-I)

42. If the payee refuses to take Money order, it should be returned for repayment to the remitter
(a) on the same day (b) after keeping it in deposit for 3 days
(c) after keeping it in deposit for 7 days (d) after keeping it in deposit for 15 days
Ans. (c) (Rule 62 of Postal Man, Vol. VI Pt.II)

43. Registered letter addressed to Shri Srinivas could not be delivered as the addressee has left India. In such a case, who will make the remarks on the article for the cause of non- delivery?

(a) Registration Delivery PA (b) APM (Delivery)
(c) Postmaster (d) Postman of that beat
Ans. (d) (Rule 183(2) of Postal Man. Vol.VI Pt.I)

44. Machine franked articles received from the local bank for dispatch indicating the place of origin & date of posting will be date stamped on
(a) Address side (b) back side (c) near the franked impression
(d) need not be date stamped

45. Money order payable to a person without fingers & suffering from leprosy and living in asylum shall be paid
(a) to the payee only after getting witness from literate persons.
(b) to any of the family members of the payee duly witnessed by a literate person.
(c) to a messenger authorized by the family members
(d) to the Head of Asylum on his signing the MO on behalf of such a person.
Ans. (b) (Rule 35 of Postal Man. Vol.VI Pt.II)
46. Franked articles bearing previous day date stamp impressions presented for despatch

(a) can be accepted. (b) can be rejected.
(c) can be accepted after getting date stamp impression of the day of dispatch.
(d) none of a, b, c.
Ans. (c) (Clause11 (10) (viii) (b) of PO Guide Part-I)

47. Who is incharge of Sorting Mail Office?
(a) Mail Guard (b) Mailman (c) Head Record Office (d) Head Sorter
Ans. (d) (Rule 15 of Postal man. Vol.V)

48. Forward bag contains
a) Only closed bags b) bags to be opened by section
c) Articles containing fully prepaid articles d) none of a, b, c.
Ans. (a) Rule 9 of Postal Man. Vol.V)

Monday, August 8, 2011

ANSWERS FOR EVIDENCE ACT MCQ QUESTIONS 1-100 post dated 4th Aug 2011

1- b , 2- b, 3- c, 4-c, 5-a, 6-d, 7-c, 8-b, 9-b, 10-c, 11-c, 12-b, 13-c, 14-d, 15-b, 16-b, 17-c, 18-b, 19-a, 20-a, 21-b, 22-d, 23-b, 24-c, 25-b, 26-c, 27-d, 28-c, 29-b, 30-c, 31-a, 32-c, 33-c, 34-d, 35-d, 36-c, 37-b, 38-d, 39-c, 40-c, 41-b, 42-a, 43-b, 44-a, 45-a, 46-c, 47-c, 48-a, 49-c, 50-b, 51-d, 52-d, 53-c, 54-d, 55-c, 56-c,57-b, 58-a, 59-d,60-b, 61-c, 62-d, 63-c, 64-b,65-c, 66-d, 67-a, 68-c, 69-b, 70-b, 71-a, 72-c, 73-a, 74-a, 75-b, 76-d, 77-a, 78-c, 79-c, 80-a, 81-d, 82-b, 83-c, 84-a, 85-a,86-c, 87-b, 88-c,89-d, 90-b, 91-c,92-b, 93-c, 94-d, 95-a, 96-b, 97-b,98-c, 99-b, 100-a

Friday, August 5, 2011

SUPPORT FOR SEPARATE TELANGANA STATE

1. On what grounds Indian Movement started ?Dint British government develop India ? Dint they introduce railways and established trade and commerce , dint they unite all princely states for developing a unified nation of British Raj ? Then why did Indians oppose , where our Leaders , So called Freedom fighters Were Poltically Unemployed that they raised question of Freedom or a Republic independant nation ?? PLUNDER AND SELF RESPECT was the reasons which gave birth to Aspirations of freedom . So is Telangana , If a MLA or MP is won , its will and wish of people , TRS TDP INC TVS TPF , whatever the agendas are , They are PEOPLES REPRESENTATIVES not Unemployed politicians . If they are political Unemployed so were freedom fighters !!!!!

2. Did Students Take part in Indian Freedom struggle ?Leaders those days travelling villages to inspire young lads to be part of the agitations to form guerrela groups and attack the govt offices and trouble the British govt , Students were motivated and they were enlightened about the benefits of independent India and the atrocities faced by the British, They were trained to attack the govt , Literally kill the officials , We Telangana students have burned ourselves but haven't touched any person till date . Are political parties using students as bait ?? did INC use our grandfathers as bait for freedom ???

3. Who Developed whom ? Who's the lord of the land ?British raj developed India , No doubts about it !!! For instance even if Andhra govt has developed Hyderabad and Telangana ? Who benefited ? Britishers developed railways , education , medical and infrastructure but on whos money ?They Plundered our resources ... exploited to the optimum level . So are these , Used our money , Used our coal , Used our water , Used " Us " to win in elections and Build Tycoon Empires which can last for generations as did East India Company ! Now whos the lord of the land ? British said i developed India so i wanna keep it myself ? did it happen ... so is with andhrites , you have done nothing , if u think u have done something and you need to be paid for that , Be our guest enjoy safe haven in Hyderabad .You are always a " TENANT "

4. Do you affirm that only Gandhi Ji got us Independence ?Can you ignore Bhagat singh , Chandhrashekar Azad , Subash Chandhrabose ?? we are sons of Father of nations , but dont forget we are brothers of azad ,bhagat & bose also .

One Demand one in Union. Prepare yourself for the Sakala Jana Samme. Be Ready lets make a it a success. Let our Voice be louder than any fake Samikyandhra movement. Dont Give up but Gear up.

Notes on Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (CrPc)

82. Proclamation for person absconding.

(1) If Any court has reason to believe (whether after taking evidence or not) that any person against whom a warrant has been issued by it has absconded or is concealing himself so that such warrant cannot be executed, such court may publish a written proclamation requiring him to appear at a specific place and at a specified time not less than thirty days from the date of publishing such proclamation.

(2) The proclamation shall be published as follows-

(i)(a) It shall be publicly read in some conspicuous place of the town or village in which such person ordinarily resides;

(b) It shall be affixed to some conspicuous part of the house or home-stead in which such person ordinarily resides or to some conspicuous place of such town or village;

(c) A copy thereof shall be affixed to some conspicuous part of the Court house,

(ii) The court may also, if it thinks fit, direct a copy of the proclamation to be published in a daily newspaper circulating in the place in which such person ordinarily resides.

(3) A statement in writing by the court issuing the proclamation to the effect that the proclamation was duly published on a specified day, in the manner specified in Clause (i) of sub-section (2), shall be conclusive evidence that the requirements of this section have been complied with, and that the proclamation was published on such day.
Proclamation and attachment (Sections 82- 86 of Code of Criminal Procedure,1973)

82. Proclamation for person absconding.

(1) If any Court has reason to believe (whether after taking evidence or not) that any person against whom a warrant has been issued by it has absconded or is concealing himself so that such warrant cannot be executed, such Court may publish a written proclamation requiring him to appear at a specified place and at a specified time not less than thirty days from the date of publishing such proclamation.

(2) The proclamation shall be published as follows:

(i) (a) it shall be publicly read in some conspicuous place of the town or village in which such person ordinarily resides;

(b) it shall be affixed to some conspicuous part of the house or homestead in which such person ordinarily resides or to some conspicuous place of such town or village;
(c) a copy thereof shall be affixed to some conspicuous part of the Court-house; (ii) the Court may also, if it thinks fit, direct a copy of the proclamation to be published in a daily newspaper circulating in the place in which such person ordinarily resides. (3) A statement in writing by the Court issuing the proclamation to the effect that the proclamation was duly published on a specified day, in the manner specified in clause (i) of sub-section (2), shall be conclusive evidence that the requirements of this section have been complied with, and that the proclamation was published on such day. 83. Attachment of Property of person absconding.

83. Attachment of Property of person absconding.

(1) The Court issuing a proclamation under section 82 may, for reasons to be recorded in writing, at any time after the issue of the proclamation, order the attachment of any property, movable or immovable, or both, belonging to the proclaimed person: Provided that where at the time of the issue of the proclamation the Court is satisfied, by affidavit or otherwise, that the person in relation to whom the proclamation is to, be issued,- (a) is about to dispose of the whole or any part of his property, or(b) is about to remove, the whole or any part of his property from the local jurisdiction of the Court, it may order the attachment simultaneously with the issue of the proclamation. (2) Such order shall authorise the attachment of any property belonging to such person within the district in which it is made; and it shall authorise the attachment of any property belonging to such person without such district when endorsed by the District Magistrate within whose district such property is situate.

(3)If the property ordered to be attached is a debt or other movable property, the attachment under this section shall be made-

(a) by seizure ; or
(b) by the appointment of a receiver ; or
(c) by an order in writing prohibiting the delivery of such property to the proclaimed person or to any one on his behalf
(d) by all or any two of such methods, as the Court thinks fit.

(4) If the property ordered to be attached is immovable, the attachment under this section shall, in the case of land paying revenue to the State Government, be made through the Collector of the district which the land is situate, and in all other cases-
(a) by taking possession ; or
(b) by the appointment of a receiver ; or
(c) by an order in writing prohibiting the payment of rent on delivery of property to the proclaimed person or to any one on his behalf ; or
(d) by all or any two of such methods, as the Court thinks fit.
(5) If the property ordered to be attached consists of live- stock or is of a perishable nature, the Court may, if it thinks it expedient, order immediate sale thereof, and in such case the proceeds of the sale shall abide the order of the Court.

(6) The powers, duties and liabilities of a receiver appointed under this section shall be the same as those of a receiver appointed under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (5 of 1908). 84. Claims and objections to attachment.

84. Claims and objections to attachment.

(1) If any claim is preferred to, or objection made to the attachment of, any property attached under section 83, within six months from the date of such attachment, by any person other than the proclaimed person, on the ground that the claimant or objector has an interest in such property, and that such interest is not liable to attachment under section 83, the claim or objection shall be inquired into, and may be allowed or disallowed in whole or in part: Provided that any claim preferred or objection made within the period allowed by this-sub-section may, in the event of the death of the claimant or objector, be continued by his legal representative. 845 (2) Claims or objections under sub-section (1) may be preferred or made in the Court by which the order of attachment is issued, or, if the claim or objection is in respect of property attached under an order endorsed under sub-section (2) of section 83, in the Court of the Chief Judicial Magistrate of the district in which the attachment is made.
(3) Every such claim or objection shall be inquired into by the Court in which it is preferred or made: Provided that, if it is preferred or made in the Court of a Chief Judicial Magistrate, he may make it over for disposal to any Magistrate subordinate to him.
(4) Any person whose claim or objection has been disallowed in whole or in part by an order under sub-section (1) may, within a period of one year from the date of such order, institute a suit to establish the right which he claims in respect of the property in dispute ; but subject to the result of such suit, if any, the order shall be conclusive.

85. Release, sale and restoration of attached property.

(1) If the proclaimed person appears within the time specified in the proclamation, the Court shall make an order releasing the property from the attachment. (2) If the proclaimed person does not appear within the time specified in the proclamation, the property under the attachment shall be at the disposal of the State Government; but it shall not be sold until the expiration of six months from the date of the attachment and until any claim preferred or objection made under section 84 has been disposed under that section, unless it is subject to speedy and natural decay, or the Court considers that the sale would be for the benefit of the owner ; in either of which cases the Court may cause it to be sold whenever it thinks fit. (3) If, within two years from the date of the attachment, any person whose property is or has been at the disposal of the State Government, under sub-section (2), appears voluntarily or is apprehended and brought before the Court by whose order the property was attached, or the Court to which such Court is subordinate, and proves to the satisfaction of such Court that he did not abscond or conceal himself for the purpose of avoiding execution of the warrant, and that he had not such notice of the proclamation as to enable him to attend within the time specified therein, such property, or, if the same has been sold, the net proceeds of the sale, or, if part only thereof has been sold, the net proceeds of the sale and the residue of the property, shall, after satisfying therefrom all costs incurred in consequence of the attachment, be delivered to him.

86. Appeal from order rejecting application for restoration of attached property.

Any person referred to in sub-section (3) of section 85, who is aggrieved by any refusal to deliver property or the proceeds of the sale thereof may appeal to the Court to which appeals ordinarily lie from the sentences of the first-mentioned Court.

Thursday, August 4, 2011

MC QUESTIONS ON EVIDENCE ACT

1. Indian Evidence Act was drafted by

(a) Lord Macaulay

(b) Sir James F. Stephen

(d) Sir Henry Summer Maine.

2. The law of evidence consists of

(a) ordinary rules of reasoning

(b) legal rules of evidence

(d) all the above.

3. Relevancy and admissibility under the

Indian Evidence Act are

(a) synonymous

(b) co-extensive

(d) synonymous & co-extensive both.

4. 'Self-regarding' statements

(a) can be self-serving statements

(b) can be self-harming statements

(d) none of the above.

5. What is correct as regards the admissibility of self-regarding statements

(a) self-harming statement is admissible but a self-serving statement is not generally admissible

(b) self-serving statement is admissible but a self-harming statement is not generally admissible

(d) self-serving and self-harming statements both are generally inadmissible.

6. Under the law of evidence, as a general rule

(a) opinion on a matter of fact is relevant but not on a matter of law

(b) opinion on a matter of law is relevant but not on a matter of fact

(d) opinion whether on a matter of fact or law, is irrelevant.

7. Indian Evidence Act applies to

(a) proceedings before tribunals

(b) proceedings before the arbitrator

(d) all the above.

8. Law of evidence is

(a) lex tallienis

(b) lex fori

(d) lex situs.

9. Law of evidence is

(a) a substantive law

(b) an adjective law

(d) neither (a) nor (b).

10. Facts can be

(a) physical facts

(b) psychological facts

(d) only physical facts & not psychological facts.

11. Under the Evidence Act, fact means

(a) factum probandum

(b) factum probans

(d) none of the above.

12. Fact in issue means

(a) fact, existence or non-existence of which is admitted by the parties

(b) fact, existence or non-existence of which is disputed by the parties

(d) all the above.

13. Evidence under the Indian Evidence Act means & includes

(a) ocular evidence

(b) documentary evidence

(d) ocular evidence based on documents only.

14. Propositions under Evidence Act are

I. Affidavit is an evidence.

II. Everything produced before the court for inspection is evidence.

III. Anything of which judicial notice can be taken is evidence.

IV. Written statement of an accused is evidence. Which of the following is true in respect of the aforesaid propositions

(a) I, II, III & IV all are correct

(b) I, II & III are correct but IV is incorrect

(d) I, II & IV are incorrect but III is correct

(e) I & II are correct but III & IV are incorrect

(f) I is incorrect but II, III & IV are correct.

15. Proof of a fact depends on

(a) accuracy of the statement and not upon the probability of its existence

(b) not upon the accuracy of the statement but upon the probability of its existence

(d) rigid mathematical demonstration.

16. Standard of proof in

(a) civil and criminal cases is the same

(b) criminal cases is much more higher than in civil cases

(d) either (a) or (c) are correct

17. Presumptions under the law of evidence are

(a) presumption of facts

(b) presumptions of law

(d) only (b) & not (a).

18. Propositions under Evidence Act are

I. Presumptions of facts are always rebuttable

II. Presumption of facts can be either rebuttable or irrebuttable

III. Presumption of law are always irrebuttable

IV. Presumption of law can be either rebuttable or irrebuttable.

Which is true of the aforesaid propositions

(a) I & III are correct but II & IV are incorrect

(b) I & IV are correct but II & III are incorrect

(d) II & IV are correct but I & III are incorrect.

19. Under the law of evidence, the relevant fact

(a) must be legally relevant

(b) must be logically relevant

(d) must be legally & logically relevant and admissible.

20. Relevancy is

(a) question of law and can be raised at any time

(b) question of law but can be raised at the first opportunity

(c) question of law which can be waived

(d) question of procedure which can be waived.

21. Question of mode of proof is

(a) a question of law which can be raised at any time

(b) a question of procedure but has to be raised at the first opportunity and stands waived if not raised at the first opportunity

(d) a mixed question of law & fact.

22. Which of the following documents are not admissible in evidence

(a) documents improperly procured

(b) documents procured by illegal means

(d) neither (a) nor (b).

23. The facts which form part of the same transaction are relevant

(a) under section 5 of Evidence Act

(b) under section 6 of Evidence Act

(d) under section 8 of Evidence Act.

24. A fact forming part of the same transaction is relevant under section 6 of Evidence Act

(a) if it is in issue and have occurred at the same time & place

(b) if it is in issue and may have occurred at different times & places

(d) though not in issue, must have occurred at the same time & place.

25. Several classes of facts, which are connected with the transaction(s) in a particular mode, are relevant

(a) under section 6 of Evidence Act

(b) under section 7 of Evidence Act

(d) under section 9 of Evidence Act.

26. Motives of preparation and conduct are I relevant

(a) under section 6 of Evidence Act

(b) under section 7 of Evidence Act

(d) under section 9 of Evidence Act.

27. Under section 8 of Evidence Act

(a) motive is relevant

(b) preparation is relevant

(d) all the above.

28. For conduct to be relevant under section 8 of Evidence Act, it

(a) must be previous

(b) must be subsequent

(d) only subsequent & not previous.

29. Facts which are necessary to explain or introduce relevant facts of place, name, date, relationship & identity of parties are relevant

(a) under section 8 of Evidence Act

(b) under section 9 of Evidence Act

(d) under section 11 of Evidence Act.

30. Under section 9 of Evidence Act

(a) the identification parades of suspects are relevant

(b) the identification parades of chattels are relevant

(d) only (a) & not (b) is relevant.

31. Identification of a suspect by photo is

(a) admissible in evidence

(b) not admissible in evidence

(d) section 8 of Evidence Act excludes identification by photo.

32. Things said or done by a conspirator in reference to the common design is relevant

(a) under section 12 of Evidence Act

(b) under section 6 of Evidence Act

(d) under section 8 of Evidence Act.

33. A confession made by a conspirator involving other members is relevant against the co-conspirator jointly tried with him and is admissible

(a) under section 8 of Evidence Act

(b) under section 10 of Evidence Act

(d) both (b) & (c).

34. Alibi is governed by

(a) section 6 of Evidence Act

(b) section 8 of Evidence Act

(d) section 11 of Evidence Act.

35. Transaction and instances relating to a right or custom are relevant

(a) under section 6 of Evidence Act

(b) under section 8 of Evidence Act

(d) under section 13 of Evidence Act.

36. Section 13 of Evidence Act applies to

(a) corporal rights

(b) incorporal rights

(d) neither (a) nor (b).

37. Section 13 of Evidence Act

(a) is confined to public rights & does not cover private rights

(b) is not confined to public rights and covers private rights also

(d) either (a) or (c) is correct.

38. Mode of proof of a custom is contained in

(a) section 32(4) of Evidence Act

(b) section 32(7) of Evidence Act

(d) all the above.

39. Section 14 of Evidence Act makes relevant the facts which show the existence of

(a) any state of mind

(b) any state of body or bodily feeling

(d) a particular state of mind and a state of body.

40. Under section 14 of Evidence Act - Explanation I

(a) evidence of general disposition, habit or tendencies is inadmissible

(b) evidence having a distinct and immediate reference to the particular matter in question is admissible

(d) both (a) & (b) are incorrect.

41. Previous conviction of a person is relevant under

(a) explanation I to section 14 of Evidence Act

(b) explanation II to section 14 of Evidence Act

(d) explanation IV to section 14 of Evidence Act.

Multiple Choice Questions for Judicial Service Examination

42. Under section 15 of Evidence Act, facts showing series of similar occurrences, involving the same person are relevant

(a) when it is uncertain whether the act is intentional or accidental

(b) when it is certain that the act is with guilty knowledge

(d) either (b) or (c).

43. Admission has been defined as a statement made by a party or any person connected with him, suggesting any inference as to a fact in issue or relevant fact under certain circumstances, under

(a) section 16 of Evidence Act

(b) section 17 of Evidence Act

(d) section 19 of Evidence Act.

44. Admissions

(a) must be examined as a whole and not in parts

(b) can be examined in parts

(d) both (b) & (c) are correct.

45. Admissions bind the maker

(a) in so far as it relates to facts

(b) in so far as it relates to question of law

(d) neither (a) nor (b).

46. Admissions

(a) must be in writing

(b) must be oral

(d) only in writing & not oral.

47. Admission to be relevant

(a) must be made to the party concerned & not to a stranger

(b) must be made to a stranger

(d) it is immaterial to whom the admission is made but must be made to someone intimately connected & not a stranger.

48. Propositions under Evidence Act are

I. Statement is a genus, admission is a species

& confession is a sub species.

II. Statement & admission are species & confession is a sub species.

III. Statement & admission are genus & confession is a species.

In this context which of the following is correct

(a) I is correct, II & III are incorrect

(b) I & II are correct & III is incorrect

(d) III is correct & I & II are incorrect.

49. Admission can be

(a) formal only

(b) informal only

(d) only formal & not informal.

50. Admissions

(a) are conclusive proof of the matters admitted

(b) are not conclusive proof of the matters admitted but operate as estoppel

(d) both (a) & (c) are correct.

51. Persons who can make admissions are mentioned in

(a) section 17 of Evidence Act

(b) section 20 of Evidence Act

(d) section 18 of Evidence Act.

52. Admissions by agents are

(a) admissible in civil proceedings under all circumstances

(b) admissible in civil proceedings only if the agent has the authority to make admissions

(d) both (b) & (c).

53. Admissions made by a party are evidence against

(a) privies in blood

(b) privies in law

(d) all the above.

54. Which of the following admission is no evidence

(a) an admission by one of the several defendants in a suit against another defendant

(b) an admission by a guardian ad litem against a minor

(d) only (a) & (b).

55. When the liability of a person who is one of the parties to the suit depends upon the liability of a stranger to the suit, then an admission by the stranger in respect of his liability shall be an admission on the part of that person who is a party to the suit. It has been so provided

(a) under section 21 of Evidence Act

(b) under section 20 of Evidence Act

(d) under section 17 of Evidence Act.

56. In a reference made over a disputed matter to a third person, the declaration so made by that person shall be an evidence against the party making a reference, by virtue of

(a) section 17 of Evidence Act

(b) section 19 of Evidence Act

(d) section 21 of Evidence Act.

57. Communication made 'without prejudice' are protected

(a) under section 22 of Evidence Act

(b) under section 23 of Evidence Act

(d) under section 21 of Evidence Act.

58. Confession caused by inducement, threat or promise is contained in

(a) section 24 of Evidence Act

(b) section 25 of Evidence Act

(d) section 27 of Evidence Act.

59. Section 24 of Evidence Act applies

(a) when the inducement, threat or promise comes from a person in authority

(b) when the inducement is of a temporal kind

(d) only (a) & (b) are correct.

60. A confession made to a police officer is inadmissible under

(a) , section 24 of Evidence Act

(b) section 25 of Evidence Act

(d) section 27 of Evidence Act.

61. A confession to be inadmissible under section 25 of Evidence Act

(a) must relate to the same crime for which he is charged

(b) must relate to another crime

(d) only (a) is correct and (b) is incorrect.

62. Which of the following is not given by section 25 of Evidence Act

(a) confessions made to custom officers

(b) confession made to a member of Railway Protection Force

(d) all the above.

63. A retracted confession

(a) can be made solely the basis of conviction

(b) cannot be made solely the basis of conviction under any circumstances

(d) both (a) & (c) are incorrect.

64. A confession made by a person while in police custody is inadmissible as per

(a) section 25 of Evidence Act

(b) section 26 of Evidence Act

(d) section 30 of Evidence Act.

65. A confession made while in police custody is admissible under section 26 of Evidence Act

(a) if made in the presence of a doctor

(b) if made in the presence of a captain of a vessel

(d) all the above.

66. Section 27 control

(a) section 24 of Evidence Act

(b) section 25 of Evidence Act

(d) all the above.

67. Section 27 applies to

(a) discovery of some fact which the police had not previously learnt from other sources and was first derived from the information given by the accused

(b) discovery of some fact which the police had previously learnt from other sources

(c) discovery of some fact which the police had previously learnt from other sources and the accused has also given information regarding the same

(d) all the above.

68. Under section 27 of Evidence Act, 'discovery of fact' includes

(a) the object found

(b) the place from where it is produced

(d) neither (a) nor (b).

69. Section 27 of Evidence Act applies

(a) when the person giving information is an accused but not in police custody

(b) when the person giving information is an accused and is in police custody

(d) when the person is neither in police custody nor an accused.

70. Under section 27 of Evidence Act

(a) the whole statement is admissible

(b) only that portion which distinctly relates to the discovery is admissible

(d) only (a) & not (b).

71. Facts discovered in consequences of a joint information

(a) are not admissible and can not be used against any of the accused person

(b) are admissible and can be used against any one of the accused person

(d) both (a) & (c) are correct.

72. Confession of an accused is admissible against the other co-accused

(a) under section 28 of Evidence Act

(b) under section 29 of Evidence Act

(d) under section 31 of Evidence Act.

73. Confession of one accused is admissible against co-accused

(a) if they are tried jointly for the same offences

(b) if they are tried jointly for different offences

(d) if they are tried for different offences and not jointly.

74. Confession of a co-accused, not required to be on oath and cannot be tested by cross- examination

I. is no evidence within the meaning of section 3 of Evidence Act and cannot be the foundation of a conviction

II. the only limited use which can be made of a confession of a co-accused is by way of furnishing an additional reason for believing such other evidences as exists

III. it is a very weak type of evidence and is much weaker even than the evidence of an approver.

In the aforesaid propositions

(a) all I, II & III are correct

(b) only I & III are correct

(d) only II & III are correct.

75. 'Necessity rule' as to the admissibility of evidence is contained in

(a) section 31 of Evidence Act

(b) section 32 of Evidence Act

(d) section 61 of Evidence Act.

76. Necessity rule as to the admissibility of evidence is applicable, when the maker of a statement

(a) is dead or has become incapable of giving evidence

(b) is a person who can be found but his attendance can not be procured without unreasonable delay or expenses

(d) all the above.

77. Under section 32 of Evidence Act, a statement of a person who is dead, to be admissible

(a) must relate to the cause of his own death

(b) may relate to the cause of someone else' death

(d) both (b) & (c) are correct.

78. The person whose statement is admitted under section 32 of Evidence Act

(a) must be competent to testify

(b) need not be competent to testify

(d) only (a) is correct and (b) & (c) are incorrect.

79. A dying declaration is admissible

(a) only in criminal proceedings

(b) only in civil proceedings

(d) in criminal proceedings alone & not in civil proceedings.

80. A dying declaration

(a) can form the sole basis of conviction without any corroboration by independent evidence

(b) can form the basis of conviction only on corroboration by independent witness

(d) only (b) & (c) are correct.

81. A dying declaration to be admissible

(a) must be made before a Magistrate

(b) must be made before the police officer

(d) may be made either before a magistrate or a police officer or a doctor or a private person.

82. Declaration in course of business are admissible

(a) under section 32(1) of Evidence Act

(b) under section 32(2) of Evidence Act

(d) under section 32(7) of Evidence Act.

83. Declaration as to custom are admissible

(a) under section 32(1) of Evidence Act

(b) under section 32(2) of Evidence Act

(d) under section 32(7) of Evidence Act.

84. Under section 32(4) of Evidence Act, the declaration

(a) as to public rights & customs are admissible

(b) as to private rights & customs are admissible

(d) only as to customs are admissible.

85. Opinions of experts are relevant

(a) under section 45 of Evidence Act

(b) under section 46 of Evidence Act

(d) under section 48 of Evidence Act.

86. Under section 45 of Evidence Act, the opinion of expert can be for

(a) identity of hand writing

(b) identity of finger impression

(d) neither (a) nor (b).

87. Under section 45 of Evidence Act the opinion of expert can be on the question of

(a) Indian law

(b) Foreign law

(d) only (a) & not (b).

88. Opinion of an expert under section 45 of Evidence Act

(a) is a conclusive proof

(b) is not a conclusive proof

(d) either (a) or (c).

89. A disputed handwriting can be proved

(a) by calling an expert

(b) by examining a person acquainted with the handwriting of the writer of the questioned document

(d) all the above.

90. The res inter alia acta is receivable

(a) under section 45 of Evidence Act

(b) under section 46 of Evidence Act

(d) under section 48 of Evidence Act.

91. Entries in the books of accounts regularly kept in the course of business are admissible under section 34 of Evidence Act

(a) if they by themselves create a liability

(b) if they by themselves do not create a liability

(d) either (a) or (b).

92. When the court has to ascertain the relationship between one person and another, the opinion of any person having special means of knowledge and expressed by conduct is admissible

(a) under section 51 of Evidence Act

(b) under section 50 of Evidence Act

(d) under section 49 of Evidence Act.

93. The relationship in section 50 of Evidence Act means

(a) relationship by blood only

(b) relationship by blood or marriage

(d) only (a) and not (b) & (c).

94. Opinion as to relationship of marriage under section 50 of CPC

(a) is admissible in cases of offences against marriage

(b) is admissible in proceedings under Indian Divorce Act

(d) is neither admissible in cases of offences against marriage nor in proceedings under Indian Divorce Act

95. Propositions under Evidence Act are

I. In civil cases, character evidence is inadmissible unless the character of a party is a fact in issue.

II. In criminal cases, the evidence of good character is admissible generally.

III. In criminal proceedings, evidence of bad character is inadmissible unless the same is a fact in issue.

IV. In criminal proceedings evidence of bad character is admissible when evidence of good character has been given. In relation to the above propositions which of the following is correct statement

(a) all the four (I, II, III & IV) are correct

(b) I, II & III are correct but IV is incorrect

(d) I & III are correct but II & IV are incorrect

(e) I, II & IV are correct but III is incorrect

(f) II, III & IV are correct but I is incorrect.

96. Facts of which the judicial notice is to be taken are stated in

section 56 of Evidence Act

section 57 of Evidence Act

section 58 of Evidence Act

section 55 of Evidence Act.

97. List of facts of which the judicial notice has to be taken under section 57 of Evidence Act

(a) is exhaustive

(b) is illustrative only

(d) is neither (a) nor (b).

98. Facts which need not be proved by the parties include

(a) facts of which judicial notice has to be taken

(b) facts which have been admitted by the parties at or before the hearing

(d) neither (a) nor (b).

99. The court may in its discretion call for proving the facts

(a) of which judicial notice has to be taken

(b) which have been admitted otherwise than such admissions

(d) neither (a) nor (b).

100. Oral evidence under section 60 of Evidence Act may be

(a) direct only

(b) hearsay

(d) either (a) or (b).

AKULA PRAVEEN KUMAR

HTML

HTML2

Wednesday, August 31, 2011

Tuesday, August 30, 2011

HAPPY VINAYAKA CHAVATHI

Eligibility of officials qualified in Departmental Postmaster Grade – I Examination to appear IPO Examination :

IP AND LGO EXAM POSTPONED

Sunday, August 28, 2011

Friday, August 26, 2011

Sunday, August 14, 2011

Saturday, August 13, 2011

Services Associated With Traditional Postal Communication

Friday, August 12, 2011

RAKSHBANDHAN WISHES TO ALL

Wednesday, August 10, 2011

LGO EXAM MODEL QUESTIONS

Monday, August 8, 2011

ANSWERS FOR EVIDENCE ACT MCQ QUESTIONS 1-100 post dated 4th Aug 2011

Friday, August 5, 2011

SUPPORT FOR SEPARATE TELANGANA STATE

Thursday, August 4, 2011

MC QUESTIONS ON EVIDENCE ACT